The Bible - Is it 100% the Word of God or it "has" the Word of God?

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charispistis

Puritan Board Freshman
Dear brothers and sisters,

A person approached me saying he believes the Bible "includes" or "has" the Words of God in it, and those Words then ,he believes 100%.

He argues that in Job 22, God is not the one speaking, it's Eliphaz, as he incites Job against God.

So he says its Eliphaz speaking in this whole chapter.

I believe every word of the Bible IS the Word of God, and even if it is Satan speaking, God inspired Prophets to record those inspired words.

What can I say to him?
 
All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work. (2 Timothy 3:16-17 ESV)
 
The words spoken by Eliphaz help to emphasize the glory of God in the story, by showing he is wrong, and God is right, and as he is God he can do whatever. God uses means for his purposes. What then does he say of Paul? Are those not the words of God himself through Paul? As he uses the moral law with the ceremonial law abolished and such, or was that improper for Paul to say? Must we go back to the very words of all of the Pentateuch and establish all the civil punishments? Should we put out a woman or a man for their natural bodily discharge since those words came from God himself? Press him on these questions. What about God speaking through people? He did that through Moses, or does he advocate that subjective experience that God is talking to him? What about the histories? Are those not part of God's word as well?

He must be one of those very naive 'red-letter' Christians. Or sounds like the Sadducees (who believed only the Pentateuch was the word of God), or the Jews of the time that believed the Pentateuch was above the rest of the old testament, then the prophets, and then the writings as sort of lesser 'words of God.'
 
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