Parmenas
Puritan Board Freshman
About last week, I finished listening to this wonderful Covenant Theology Overview series by Dr. McMahon (Note: I did not listen to the sermon by the Rev. Greg Price).
In part 3 of Dr. McMahon's overview of Covenant Theology, circumcision is discoursed on in some detail. I am somewhat murky (and I feel somewhat confused) in my understanding of the abrogation of circumcision (this is not attributable to Dr. McMahon).
Could someone please provide a concise explanation of the abrogation of circumcision (with scripture references)? The following is the extent of my understanding (it is very broad and vague):
At first, the covenant sign of circumcision was in place for Jewish Christians as well as baptism. Circumcision was not in place for Gentile Christians, but only baptism was. With the destruction of the Second Temple in A.D. 70, circumcision was discontinued and baptism became the sole covenant sign for both Jews and Gentiles.
Thank you in advance.
In part 3 of Dr. McMahon's overview of Covenant Theology, circumcision is discoursed on in some detail. I am somewhat murky (and I feel somewhat confused) in my understanding of the abrogation of circumcision (this is not attributable to Dr. McMahon).
Could someone please provide a concise explanation of the abrogation of circumcision (with scripture references)? The following is the extent of my understanding (it is very broad and vague):
At first, the covenant sign of circumcision was in place for Jewish Christians as well as baptism. Circumcision was not in place for Gentile Christians, but only baptism was. With the destruction of the Second Temple in A.D. 70, circumcision was discontinued and baptism became the sole covenant sign for both Jews and Gentiles.
Thank you in advance.