Sorry, but another question about the RPW

I am wondering how a certain observation fits in with the fact that only what God orders is permitted in worship: there are no written songs in the Bible, only lyrics.

This really is quite puzzling, as it seems to mean that we are commanded to sing, yet we must necessarily bring in a song's musical notation from outside the text. How is this not some form of will-worship? And how far does it allow outside influences to go?

Also, how does the fact that we can sing psalms in a different language from the original tie in with the RPW?

 

Thanks for the response. And before I go on, I want to say that I am not arguing for the falsity of the RPW, but rather I want to know how it stands against certain objections. I am not very knowledgeable about it, and I therefore request that my questions are not taken as attacks but are only from curiosity and for my discernment.

What else qualifies as circumstantial?

Are the psalms that do indicate a tune only to be sung in that tune?

Does the Bible state anywhere that we are only to sing psalms specifically?

I have to go now, but I have some more questions that I need to articulate. Thank you.

 

Thanks for the answers so far, guys. I just got a few more questions...

Does "circumstantial" essentially entail some part of a command (explicit or implicit) in which the details are not given, but which must be present?

What else qualifies as circumstantial?

(From before) What are the psalms that indicate a tune? Are these psalms only to be sung in that tune?

 

Alright, this has been going remarkably smooth for me -- earlier, when I was trying to discern what exactly the RPW entailed, I could not decide on anything, but after reading a couple of Rev. Brian Schwertley's articles and clearing up some other things (thanks to you guys!), I am convinced that instruments ought be withheld in worship and that exclusive psalmody is true. The counter-arguments of my own and of others did not seem adequate.

My sinful rebellion against God's Word was evident before me now. I had thought that these ideas were ridiculous, and I tried reconciling them to my feelings before searching for what Scripture taught, rather than the other way around. I wanted to see what "felt right" and was in line with "common sense" before seeing what was in line with God's Word. By God's grace I prayed before this search, and He enlightened me rather quickly.

Otherwise, I am sifting through some nuances of the RPW, namely, if and how God can be corporately worshiped on days other than His instituted Lord's Day. For example, is it alright to meet on Wednesday nights with about 10-15 Christians for praise and worship (I'm assuming yes)? If so, does the regulative principle of worship apply to such a meeting?

To answer this question, I am making my way through this previous thread I created and the links which are branched from there, but I would appreciate any extra input.

Thank you guys again. Thank you so much.

 

Upon reading through the other thread, I am still unsure of how to make distinctions between regulations for public, family, and private worship. Andrew Meyers and Rev. Winzer explained the distinction between specific/stated and general worship, but I still find the distinction fuzzy.

For instance, the RPW mandates that everything commanded in Scripture pertaining to worship is necessary, and everything not commanded is forbidden. Therefore, in public worship, if we subtract the sermon or the sacraments, we are obviously violating the RPW. Yet, we are not violating the RPW if we do not administer such parts of worship in family or private worship. One could argue that these are simply impractical (as we don't have ordained persons to do such things), but does that really excuse a blatant absence? That is, even if such a reason actually excuses the absence of these things, in effect the criteria are being lessened. "Do whatever I command you, as long as it's pragmatic," or "as long as you're comfortable doing so." Where do we draw the line? We need more clear-cut rules between the three different spheres of worship.

Implicit in the blurry distinction is the question, When am I engaging in private worship? A question raised in one of the threads linked from the "Extent of the RPW" thread asked if one would be sinning for simply picking up his guitar and singing a praise song. When exactly does specific private worship begin and general worship end? If I am on my to class and I start singing "A Mighty Fortress Is Our God," am I profaning God's worship by bringing in human inventions? If I make myself so that I'm not singing towards God but merely singing the song for my enjoyment, am I better off than singing an uninspired song directly to God?

Sorry, but I really want to nail down the intricacies of the regulative principle.

 

Come on, guys...

 

Alright, this has been really bugging me, as there are two separate extremes to be avoided: strict adherence to the RPW in non-public worship (which would then include a sermon, sacraments, etc.), and a NPW which would open the floodgates for incense, etc. I can't find a way to balance this.

It is obvious that public worship ought to strictly adhere to the RPW. It is not so obvious for the other two.

For instance, it would be impossible for family and private worship to have the sacraments if no family member were ordained. But how exactly does that play into the RPW? Where is Scriptural justification for removing that aspect of it, even for such an obvious removal?

It seems that part of the solution is to understand that private worship is synonymous with general worship, although I'm not too sure how many would agree with that. Then, it is at least possible for a non-ordained person to worship God by himself, since if an ordained person had to join him to administer the sacraments it would no longer be private worship; therefore, private worship by a non-ordained person could not exist if strict adherence to the RPW were required. But if private worship is equated with general worship, then what forbids us from incense, shrines, etc.?

This leads to another question: in general worship, are we allowed to offer incense and do other things allowed by the NPW? I'm assuming part of that solution is that as soon as one begins to have any type of ceremony at all, it ceases to be general worship and becomes specific, private worship. But with this distinction back in the fold, it seems that private worship cannot exist strictly under the RPW, and therefore we have to find some justification either explicitly or implicitly from Scripture that allows for RPW "reductions."

Can anyone help me sort through this?!

 

Thank you so much for this distinction!

When exactly would you say that meditation becomes worship? Would it be when a certain time is planned? Am I not prostrating myself in a sense whenever I am singing of God's greatness on my way to classes?

 

One thing that could help in determining the grasp of the RPW over different spheres of worship is the fact that the Lord's Supper is not administered in every public worship service. We are commanded to partake in it, but does that mean that we are commanded to partake in every instance? If so, the new observation doesn't really help much in my discerning; if not, it can help a ton.

 

It wouldn't be. I was asking if singing the song on the way to classes (for example) would be allowable within the RPW.

In a way, I knew it was, but not how, but Rev. Winzer graciously explained it.