InSlaveryToChrist
Puritan Board Junior
"Consequently, just as the result of one trespass was condemnation for all men, so also the result of one act of righteousness was justification that brings life for all men."
This is a typical reading of Romans 5:18 in almost every translation available. I also checked German translations, and they all virtually say the same thing.
The King James Version, however, is an exception:
"Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life."
It has the "free gift," which no other translation that I know has. It totally changes the meaning of the text, because it replaces (NOT contradicts) the effectual nature of Christ's atonement with a free offer of the Gospel. As Matthew Henry used KJV in his commentary on Romans, he concluded:
"There is a free gift come upon all men, that is, it is made and offered promiscuously to all. The salvation wrought is a common salvation; the proposals are general, the tender free; whoever will may come, and take of these waters of life. This free gift is to all believers, upon their believing, unto justification of life."
Isn't this an alteration of the original meaning of the text? Even though the "free gift" part may first sound good to the ear of a proponent of Limited Atonement, in my opinion, it does injustice to the context of the text. As John Murray points out, verse 18 simply summarises what is taught before, starting from verse 12. The "free gift" interpretation of verse 18 does not fit or make sense of the verses that precede it.
What do you think?
This is a typical reading of Romans 5:18 in almost every translation available. I also checked German translations, and they all virtually say the same thing.
The King James Version, however, is an exception:
"Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life."
It has the "free gift," which no other translation that I know has. It totally changes the meaning of the text, because it replaces (NOT contradicts) the effectual nature of Christ's atonement with a free offer of the Gospel. As Matthew Henry used KJV in his commentary on Romans, he concluded:
"There is a free gift come upon all men, that is, it is made and offered promiscuously to all. The salvation wrought is a common salvation; the proposals are general, the tender free; whoever will may come, and take of these waters of life. This free gift is to all believers, upon their believing, unto justification of life."
Isn't this an alteration of the original meaning of the text? Even though the "free gift" part may first sound good to the ear of a proponent of Limited Atonement, in my opinion, it does injustice to the context of the text. As John Murray points out, verse 18 simply summarises what is taught before, starting from verse 12. The "free gift" interpretation of verse 18 does not fit or make sense of the verses that precede it.
What do you think?