Romans 5:14

[InSlaveryToChrist]

Rom 5:14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.

What does it mean to sin "after the similitude of Adam's transgression"?

 

[Andres]

I think it helps to have the context of the verse. Also I am using the ESV.

12Therefore, just as sin came into the world through one man, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all sinned— 13for sin indeed was in the world before the law was given, but sin is not counted where there is no law. 14Yet death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those whose sinning was not like the transgression of Adam, who was a type of the one who was to come.

My understanding is that verse 14 is stating there is a difference in the types of sins between Adam and those after Moses. The reason for the difference is that before Moses the law was not given (vs 13). This does not mean that those before the law didn't sin because obviously they did, it was just different in that they did not specifically transgress the law as it was given to Moses. Instead they transgressed God's personal commands and/or His will.

 

[Pilgrim Standard]

I understood it to mean those to whom sinned after direct revelation of the word and command of God. Or those to whom sin against God and have received the word.

1. Adam received direct revelation that God demands punishment for sin yet Adam sinned anyway.
2. Those from the time frame of Adam to Moses who received the Word of God that he demands punnishment for sin, sinned in spite of the word.
3. From the time frame of Adam to Moses those who had NOT received the Word of God that he demands punnishment for sin, did so sin and yet Death reigned over them in spite of not having received the word.

Reason for the time frame given is that Moses penned the first 5 books and prior to him we are not given much information as to the passing of the law other than by direct revelation and implied verbal transmission of such.

Perhaps I am incorrect?

 

[InSlaveryToChrist]

I think it helps to have the context of the verse. Also I am using the ESV.

12Therefore, just as sin came into the world through one man, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all sinned— 13for sin indeed was in the world before the law was given, but sin is not counted where there is no law. 14Yet death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those whose sinning was not like the transgression of Adam, who was a type of the one who was to come.

My understanding is that verse 14 is stating there is a difference in the types of sins between Adam and those after Moses. The reason for the difference is that before Moses the law was not given (vs 13). This does not mean that those before the law didn't sin because obviously they did, it was just different in that they did not specifically transgress the law as it was given to Moses. Instead they transgressed God's personal commands and/or His will.

Thank you for the analysis! This helped a lot!

 

[schwarzeneggerchia]

I would suppose that when Adam sinned, We have both the guilt (similitude of Adam's sin) and also the tendency to sin (sin that is dissimilar to Adam's transgression). We can only sin more because passively we have the imputed sin of Adam, actively, we practice and act out the tendency and our sin is compounded on the sin that is of Adam.
[BIBLE]Romans 5:14[/BIBLE]

Therefore, the sin that we have apart from the imputed sin of Adam, be it in thought or action is not like Adam's sin.