Revelations 11:15

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caddy

Puritan Board Senior
Please Comment:

http://bible-truths.com/hagee1.htm


Christ "reigns for the eons of the eons" because He reigns for only two eons out of all the other eons. He will reign for the next two eons. That is, He will reign for the thousand years (the next eon) and He reigns during the New Heaven and the New Earth, the eon after that.

Please point out the Absurdity of this if you will. Can anyone here shed some light on this from the Greek? :candle:
 

tcalbrecht

Puritan Board Junior
From the article:

And notice please, the Greek is "aions of the aions" not "aions after the aions" or "aions upon the aions." Could it be that there is an "exactness" and purity here that the clergy are failing to teach?

The Greek phrase basileusei eiV touV aiwnaV twn aiwnwn, which the KJV translates "he shall reign forever and ever" is literally "to the ages of the ages." The idiomatic thought is properly rendered by the KJV.

The same phrase is used in places like Gal. 1:5, Phil. 4:20 (both of which the author does not mention) and Eph. 3:21 (which he does but not conclusively) to denote the continual, eternal glory of God. It's analogous to the phrase "I am the alpha and omega". Beginning and end.

The author never appears to deal with the exact phrase, "to the ages of the ages". And, as I have noted, he does not deal at all with other places in the NT where the exact same phrase is used, and the context clearly identifies the eternal nature of the description.

I think he is missing the forest for the trees.
 

caddy

Puritan Board Senior
Thank you Tom.

Please find this concerning L.Ray Smith:

http://www.tektonics.org/qt/smithlr01.html


From the article:



The Greek phrase basileusei eiV touV aiwnaV twn aiwnwn, which the KJV translates "he shall reign forever and ever" is literally "to the ages of the ages." The idiomatic thought is properly rendered by the KJV.

The same phrase is used in places like Gal. 1:5, Phil. 4:20 (both of which the author does not mention) and Eph. 3:21 (which he does but not conclusively) to denote the continual, eternal glory of God. It's analogous to the phrase "I am the alpha and omega". Beginning and end.

The author never appears to deal with the exact phrase, "to the ages of the ages". And, as I have noted, he does not deal at all with other places in the NT where the exact same phrase is used, and the context clearly identifies the eternal nature of the description.

I think he is missing the forest for the trees.
 

caddy

Puritan Board Senior
I am trying to understand why my brother is so fascinated with him...

I can only conclude like a lot of people, the notion of NO HELL is appealing...
 
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