Recommended books on Bernard of Clairvaux

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RobertPGH1981

Puritan Board Sophomore
Hello All,

I have to write a medieval history paper and wanted to write something on Bernard of Clairvaux. To reduce the scope on the subject, I am going to attempt to trace justification by faith alone through his writing, sermons, and letters. Here is a clip I found in one of his works below. Does anybody have recommended books that highlight this, or that highlight why the Reformers like Calvin and Luther liked him so much?

"And I am not afraid of being rejected by the Father of lights when I have been rescued in this way from the power of darkness and justified through His grace by the blood of His Son: It is God that justifieth, who is he that condemneth? He who had mercy on the sinner will not condemn the righteous; I mean that I am righteous, but it is in His righteousness, for Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone that believeth (Rom. 10:4). In short, He was made our righteousness by God the Father (1 Cor. 1:30). Is not that righteousness mine which was made for me? If my guilt was inherited, why should not my righteousness be accorded to me? And, truly, what is given to me is safer than what was born in me. For this, indeed, has whereof to glory, but not before God; but that, since it is effectual to my salvation, has nothing whereof to glory save in the Lord. For if I be righteous, says Job, yet will I not lift up my head (Job 10:15), lest I receive the answer: What hast thou that thou didst not receive? now if thou didst receive it, why dost thou glory as if thou hadst not received it? (1 Cor. 4:7)."

Saint Bernard of Clairvaux, Life, and Works of Saint Bernard, ed. John Mabillon, trans. Samuel J. Eales, Second Edition., vol. 2 pg 582–583.

Thanks,

Rob
 
I would phrase your paper around the idea of antecedents of sola fide in Bernard. I do caution, though, against reading a full-orbed definition into his theology.

Another idea: how is he defining grace? For us grace is favor Dei propter Christum, favor of God on account of Christ. The medievals had a tendency to view grace as a substance. It might help to see how Bernard is using it. If he is using grace as a substance, then it might not matter too much how sola fide he sounds.

And if he is teaching sola fide, how does it play out in the rest of his theology? Is he overly Marian, and if so, is that in tension with his views on justification?
 
Some might be pricey




 
I’ve read that Luther thought highly of Bernard though I wouldn't know where to find it.
 
Another idea: how is he defining grace? For us grace is favor Dei propter Christum, favor of God on account of Christ. The medievals had a tendency to view grace as a substance. It might help to see how Bernard is using it. If he is using grace as a substance, then it might not matter too much how sola fide he sounds.

And if he is teaching sola fide, how does it play out in the rest of his theology?
I might be a little bit out of my league on this now that you bring this up. I did however find a lot of great books on him that may shed some light on this topic. I guess I will only know for sure if I dig into it a little bit. I know that in the Institutes that Calvin references him a few times, and Luther spoke about him so I may need to read some of what they wrote. Some of it may be polemical..
 
I’ve read that Luther thought highly of Bernard though I wouldn't know where to find it.
Luther and Calvin mention him in their works. Here is one mention from Luther:

Luther when he spoke on the importance of knowing the biblical Languages:
"St. Bernard was a man so lofty in spirit that I almost venture to set him above all other celebrated teachers both ancient and modern. But note how often he plays (spiritually to be sure) with the Scriptures and twists them out of their true sense. This is also why the sophists have contended that Scripture is obscure; they have held that God’s word by its very nature is obscure and employs a peculiar style of speech."

Vol. 5, The Annotated Luther, 264.
 
I remember reading that Bernard says that one may be saved by faith alone if one has not had the opportunity for good works, like the elect person dying in infancy. In that case, but not ordinarily, faith alone avails for salvation.
 
Beware of the temptation to read Bernard in a way divorced from the common theological traditions and definitions of his time. Above all others, Augustine cast a long shadow over the Latin Church of the middle ages, and his successors followed him whenever possible. Now, for Augustine, "justify" means "make inherently righteous" (justum facere), and we are justified "from faith" because faith is the first virtue worked by the Spirit in the believer, from which hope and love procede, and the one who has faith, hope, and love is righteous. Righteousness/justification then become almost synonymous, and may be increased as one increases in holiness. Bernard, unless proven otherwise, should be assumed to be working off of this definition of justification and of "by faith". Moreover, there is some evidence to be found in his works that he embraces this Augustinian perspective. In De Diversis, p. 2558, he talks about "filling up justification" through almsgiving, fasting, and prayer, which Augustine also prescribed as a remedy for the pardon of mortal sins after baptism.
How this perspective comes together with the material quotes above I can't say; I'm not a Bernard expert; but it's likely that Protestants would find a fair amount to disagree with Bernard on on this point. Which should hardly be a surprise given his place as the preeminent preacher of Roman Christianity (and of the crusades) at a time when Roman Christianity was growing increasingly corrupt.
 
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