Rapture vs Sheep & Goats advise

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spunky01

Puritan Board Freshman
I am a Reformed Baptist that has gone to a PCA Church for quite a while now and I have a longtime friend that I get together with every now and again who is a dispensationalist that likes to talk about prophecy quite frequently. I was over at his place for a camp fire night with a few other people recently and he got to talking about eschatology. (imagine that)! I am an amillenialist who used to be a dispensationalist, but never speculated about it as much as my friend does. Somewhere in the conversation he asked me how I could reconcile the rapture which is a catching away and a translation compared with the sheep & goats judgment where Christ separates the saved from the unsaved. His premise that he was getting at is that the sheep & the goat’s judgment would be redundant if believers were previously translated, resurrected and sent to heaven.
I had told him that I just took it as one event from different angles and also had said basically that neither text gives all the details to get a whole picture and that it isn't really healthy to speculate too much on things of this nature. Of course that wasn't satisfying to him and I told him I'd look deeper into it to see if I could get a more detailed explanation.
Does anybody else have any further expanded explanations besides the one I gave?
Thanks ahead of time for any suggestions
 
I am a Reformed Baptist that has gone to a PCA Church for quite a while now and I have a longtime friend that I get together with every now and again who is a dispensationalist that likes to talk about prophecy quite frequently. I was over at his place for a camp fire night with a few other people recently and he got to talking about eschatology. (imagine that)! I am an amillenialist who used to be a dispensationalist, but never speculated about it as much as my friend does. Somewhere in the conversation he asked me how I could reconcile the rapture which is a catching away and a translation compared with the sheep & goats judgment where Christ separates the saved from the unsaved. His premise that he was getting at is that the sheep & the goat’s judgment would be redundant if believers were previously translated, resurrected and sent to heaven.
I had told him that I just took it as one event from different angles and also had said basically that neither text gives all the details to get a whole picture and that it isn't really healthy to speculate too much on things of this nature. Of course that wasn't satisfying to him and I told him I'd look deeper into it to see if I could get a more detailed explanation.
Does anybody else have any further expanded explanations besides the one I gave?
Thanks ahead of time for any suggestions
Hello, I’m also a Reformed Baptist and amillenialist who attends an OPC church (also attended PCA churches in the past). I think your response was correct. I think they’re essentially describing the same event.

True redundancy would be asserting that after Christ satisfied God with the one-time and ultimate sacrifice, he would require the physical nation of Israel to resume offering worthless sacrifices.
 
True to my passive aggressive nature, I like to answer such questions with a simple, "I don't know," and watch their blood boil. (I am not recommending such unloving behavior.)
 
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