Question related to prophetic judgments/burdens

[Laborer for the Lord]

I was thumbing through the MacArthur Study Bible, NASB version, while wrapping up my nearly year-and-a-half exegetical study of Isaiah when I came across a chart that listed all of the passages in each of the prophetic books that pertained to God's judgment on nations immediately surrounding Israel and Judah, such as Ammon, Babylon, Edom, Moab, Philistia, Damascus, Egypt, Tyre, Ethiopia etc. (For those board members who own said study bible, I believe the page number for the chart in question is 956).


Accordingly, the bulk of material is situated in the middle chapters of Isaiah (ch. 13-21), Jeremiah (ch. 46-51), and Ezekiel (ch. 25-32). As I have just finished reading through Isaiah, it appears obvious to me both from the extant historical record as well as the textual descriptions concerning each nation's ordeal that most of these events, Babylon and Tyre excluded, took place during the Neo-Assyrian period, from the reign of Tiglath-Pilesser III (745--727 B.C.) to the reign of Ashurbanipal (669--631 B.C.), who was the last king to engage in extensive military campaigning. That much also largely corresponds with Isaiah's own lifetime and would have been seen as a vindication of his prophetic ministry to Judah. The question that I am fielding has to do with the subsequent round of prophetic judgments issued in Jeremiah and Ezekiel. Given that they were contemporaries in the heyday of the Neo-Babylonian period (650--539 B.C.), I am assuming that Nebuchadnezzar or one of the later kings was employed as the primary instrument by which God executed vengeance on the aforementioned groups. Am I viewing the course of events correctly here? Were the judgments pronounced by Amos/Isaiah and Jeremiah/Ezekiel separate series of events that each had a particular, identifiable fulfillment within the historical time frame of their respective period(s)? Or is it more along the lines of a cumulative refrain of judgment that carries over from prophet to prophet? Are there any biblical scholars or commentators that touch on this issue? Any clarity would be greatly appreciated.

 

[Laborer for the Lord]

I figured it might just be a slow weekend due to the holiday, but is there really nothing anyone wants to contribute regarding this question?

 

[MW]

That chart sounds like it could be quite useful. It is important to pinpoint historical fulfilment without confining everything to what is described in that place and time. It is good to have a broader vision of the kingdom of God as it progressively pervades the world. I think some of the prophecies extend to Javan/Greece, the Diadochi, the Maccabees, Rome, and even take in the Roman destruction of Jerusalem and the extension of the gospel to the ends of the earth. And even where Assyria/Babylon/Persia provide a definite fulfilment there are other details which might be filled in by later events. Tyre is a good example.

 

[Laborer for the Lord]

That chart sounds like it could be quite useful. It is important to pinpoint historical fulfilment without confining everything to what is described in that place and time. It is good to have a broader vision of the kingdom of God as it progressively pervades the world. I think some of the prophecies extend to Javan/Greece, the Diadochi, the Maccabees, Rome, and even take in the Roman destruction of Jerusalem and the extension of the gospel to the ends of the earth. And even where Assyria/Babylon/Persia provide a definite fulfilment there are other details which might be filled in by later events. Tyre is a good example.

Thank you for the informative reply, Reverend Winzer. If you could indulge my curiosity just once more, I am planning to continue my exegetical study through the major prophets but am uncertain as to which book might prove the appropriate "sequel" to Isaiah on a historical theological level. Do you have any insight concerning this? Should one read through Ezekiel before Jeremiah or after it, in order to do justice to the revelatory sequence?

 

[MW]

Thank you for the informative reply, Reverend Winzer. If you could indulge my curiosity just once more, I am planning to continue my exegetical study through the major prophets but am uncertain as to which book might prove the appropriate "sequel" to Isaiah on a historical theological level. Do you have any insight concerning this? Should one read through Ezekiel before Jeremiah or after it, in order to do justice to the revelatory sequence?

It depends. Do you want to move on historically? Then Jeremiah would be the obvious choice. Or, you may want to go broader into the time period of Isaiah. So Hosea and Micah. From a canonical perspective I think it is good to go through the major prophets in order to get a sense of the big picture and then come back to examine particulars. In Jeremiah there are going to be chronological issues but the broad outline of the book is fairly straightforward.

 

[pastorgrumbles]

In regards to Isaiah, you can look into Paul House's commentary in the Mentor series. He argues that the destructions prophesied in Isaiah 13-23 come at the hand of the Assyrians. He doesn't directly interact with the other OAN in Jeremiah and Ezekiel, though. I would say that the terms "destruction" and "exile" are broad. There were many "exiles" at the hands of conquering nations in the times of the prophets. Thus, Isaiah can predict Babylon's downfall at the hands of Assyria, and Ezekiel could predict her downfall at the hands of Medio-Persia.
BTW I am preaching through Isaiah right now and am getting to chapter 23 this week.