fralo4truth
Puritan Board Freshman
The Holy Scripture is the only sufficient, certain, and infallible rule of all saving knowledge, faith, and obedience..."
When our forefathers declared the sufficiency of the scriptures in chapter 1 on the confession (inscribed above), did they have in mind ONLY the understanding that
it was sufficient to save the believer unto whom it comes? There's no case of one believing who will not saved by it.
Or did they mean as well by the "sufficiency of the scriptures" that it was a resource GUARANTEED to reach God's elect in time for their subsequent conversion and final salvation? It's sufficient because God will ensure that it reaches His people before they depart this life.
I'm arguing once again with the Hardshell Baptists in their preposterous notion that most of God's elect spend their whole lives having never been exposed to the gospel in time, and want to know if I can use this excerpt from the Confession to prove this particular point.
Thanks a lot Brethren.
When our forefathers declared the sufficiency of the scriptures in chapter 1 on the confession (inscribed above), did they have in mind ONLY the understanding that
it was sufficient to save the believer unto whom it comes? There's no case of one believing who will not saved by it.
Or did they mean as well by the "sufficiency of the scriptures" that it was a resource GUARANTEED to reach God's elect in time for their subsequent conversion and final salvation? It's sufficient because God will ensure that it reaches His people before they depart this life.
I'm arguing once again with the Hardshell Baptists in their preposterous notion that most of God's elect spend their whole lives having never been exposed to the gospel in time, and want to know if I can use this excerpt from the Confession to prove this particular point.
Thanks a lot Brethren.