Is this the basic argument for exclusive psalmody? 1. The regulative principle of worship derived from the Second Commandment (WCF 21.1): "[. . .] But the acceptable way of worshipping the true God is instituted by himself, and so limited by his own revealed will, that he may not be worshiped according to the imaginations and devices of men, or the suggestions of Satan, under any visible representation, or any other way not prescribed in the Holy Scripture." 2. We are commanded to sing psalms (Eph. 5:19 & Col. 3:16) in the NT. (This supposes and even requires that "psalms and hymns and spiritual songs" is a description exclusively of the psalter.) 3. Therefore, although there are other songs throughout Scripture, since we are only commanded to sing psalms we may only sing psalms. All other songs in Scripture may not be sung, though they are inspired, because we were not commanded to sing those songs. If this is deficient, please offer corrections -- I'm just wanting to understand the basic 1-2-3 argument. Thanks.