[KJV]1 Timothy 3:2-5[/KJV] (My emphasis added)2Now the overseer must be above reproach, the husband of but one wife, temperate, self-controlled, respectable, hospitable, able to teach, 3not given to drunkenness, not violent but gentle, not quarrelsome, not a lover of money. 4He must manage his own family well and see that his children obey him with proper respect. 5(If anyone does not know how to manage his own family, how can he take care of God's church?)From what I can tell, the intent of the language here is being directed that if an overseer has a wife, it is limited to one woman (no polygamy); not that he has to have a wife. What if a man is married, but is unable to have children (v. 4), does that disqualify him?
Maybe this is the opposite extreme of Romanism's celibate priesthood, except we require that a man be married before he is fit for ministry? That noted, I am just a peon and wouldn't presume to know this dogmatically.
From the KJV:
1 Tim 3:2 A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife
Which version are you quoting and I wonder why they insert a 'but' in there?