Peairtach
Puritan Board Doctor
Robert Lewis Dabney said this about the status of the Covenant of Works after Adam's transgression:
Is there - rather than a Republication of the Prelapsarian Covenant of Works in Moses- a Publication of the Postlapsarian Covenant of Works in Moses?
The obvious statement is this: The transgression has indeed terminated the sinner’s right to the sanction of reward; but it has not terminated his obligation to obey, nor to the penal sanction.
Is there - rather than a Republication of the Prelapsarian Covenant of Works in Moses- a Publication of the Postlapsarian Covenant of Works in Moses?