In Psalm 72:8, why does the KJV translate "He shall" (seems to express certainty)...where the ESV translates it "May he" (seems to express a hope/desire/prayer)? This occurs throughout the psalm. (I have no knowledge of Hebrew) Is one translation more accurate than the other in this verse?
KJV: "He shall have dominion also from sea to sea, and from the river unto the ends of the earth."
ESV: "May he have dominion from sea to sea, and from the River to the ends of the earth!"
KJV: "He shall have dominion also from sea to sea, and from the river unto the ends of the earth."
ESV: "May he have dominion from sea to sea, and from the River to the ends of the earth!"