Prostitution Allowed in OT?

[ClayPot]

So I'm reading this book with my wife (I won't mention it's name right now). It's written by a PCA pastor I believe. Anyway, at one point, he says that prostitution was permissible (though not encouraged) for women in the Old Testament as long as they didn't have a husband. If they had a husband, then it became adultery and would be a sin. This struck both of us as very odd (and wrong). He didn't cite any Scripture to make an argument, it was almost as if this was a given. He said that later, in the NT era, that prostitution was explicitly forbidden.

Is there a legitimate basis for this belief?

 

[py3ak]

I'm not sure when I've heard a remark about the OT that had less foundation. Consider Leviticus 19:29.

 

[ClayPot]

For those who wonder what Leviticus 19:29 says:

Leviticus 19:29 (English Standard Version)

"Do not profane your daughter by making her a prostitute, lest the land fall into prostitution and the land become full of depravity.

Seems pretty clear. Where would this person get the idea then? Weird.

 

[toddpedlar]

I wouldn't be surprised if the author also thinks homosexuality isn't sinful, based on his 'reading' of the text.

 

[ClayPot]

I wouldn't be surprised if the author also thinks homosexuality isn't sinful, based on his 'reading' of the text.

The author does believe that homosexuality is a sin. But his argument for why homosexual acts is a sin is a unique approach. The first part of the book was really good, but now it's getting a little weird. I might need to reread a few chapters to make sure I'm not missing something in his argumentation.

 

[toddpedlar]

I wouldn't be surprised if the author also thinks homosexuality isn't sinful, based on his 'reading' of the text.

The author does believe that homosexuality is a sin. But his argument for why homosexual acts is a sin is a unique approach. The first part of the book was really good, but now it's getting a little weird. I might need to reread a few chapters to make sure I'm not missing something in his argumentation.

It's interesting that he thinks so, because the approach that I've seen taken to say that prostitution per se is permissible argue that the words translated "whore" in the KJV really specify female temple/cult prostitute, and "sodomite" specifies male temple/cult prostitute. Similarly the same argument is made by those who argue that homsexuality itself is not a problem, but it is homosexual cult prostitution that was forbidden. Hence my suspicion that he'd argue that way... but perhaps his argument about prostitution isn't grounded on such translation issues.

 

[TimV]

Why won't you name the book???

 

[ClayPot]

The Christian Case Against Contraception by Bryan C Hodge

Back cover says: . . . He has served as a pastor for many years in the Presbyterian Church OF American (PCA is "in America" I believe, so maybe he's not PCA)

Pg 82, beginning of 2nd paragraph: "A woman was also permitted to be a prostitute as long as she was not a daughter of a priest, a cult prostitute, or sought to marry a man." It has a footnote, but the footnote simply says, "The Lord makes a major exception, or course, to this rule with the Prophet Hosea in order to make a huge point by portraying Israel's unfaithful conduct as harlotry."

edit: I should mention that there are a few more sentences where he discusses the topic, but mostly just to contrast this with the view in the NT. His last sentence of the paragraph is, "Whereas prostitution (like polygamy) was once tolerated in the Hebrew Bible, due to the extended moral requirements in the New Testament, those who practice this egregious act will not enter the kingdom of God."

I was avoiding bringing up the book title because I didn't want this to turn into an argument about contraception. The last couple of threads I've built from that topic have been quite large . . ..

Please forgive me if you feel like my initial post was hearsay. That was not my intention.

---------- Post added at 08:48 AM ---------- Previous post was at 08:46 AM ----------

It's interesting that he thinks so, because the approach that I've seen taken to say that prostitution per se is permissible argue that the words translated "whore" in the KJV really specify female temple/cult prostitute, and "sodomite" specifies male temple/cult prostitute. Similarly the same argument is made by those who argue that homsexuality itself is not a problem, but it is homosexual cult prostitution that was forbidden. Hence my suspicion that he'd argue that way... but perhaps his argument about prostitution isn't grounded on such translation issues.

He actually argues against the misguided translations you mention, thinking that the arguments that homosexuality is not a sin are woefully inadequate.

 

[Edward]

"The Christian Case against Contraception: Making the Case from Historical, Biblical, Systematic, and Practical Theology and Ethics "

Is this the book being discussed?

 

[ClayPot]

"The Christian Case against Contraception: Making the Case from Historical, Biblical, Systematic, and Practical Theology and Ethics "

Is this the book being discussed?

Yes, it is.

 

[Peairtach]

What the author is maybe getting at without being clear enough, is that we do not seem to read in the Scriptures of prostitution being a crime with a penalty attached to it under Moses., as e.g. homosexuality, adultery and incest were.

 

[Oecolampadius]

I remember reading an article about this guy and his book in our local newspaper and I looked it up on the internet to see whether I could find that same article.

According to Urban Christian News (this is not the local paper I was talking about but same article):

"He finished a bachelor's degree in biblical theology at Moody and earned a master's degree at Trinity Evangelical Divinity School."

"Hodge, a former Presbyterian pastor who is now a layman in the conservative Orthodox Presbyterian Church, realizes his mission is quixotic."

So, he was formerly a pastor in an unnamed Presbyterian denomination. And, he is now a layman in the OPC. It's probably false to assume that he used to be a pastor in the OPC because, if such was the case, then the article would have said so.

 

[TimV]

What the author is maybe getting at without being clear enough, is that we do not seem to read in the Scriptures of prostitution being a crime with a penalty attached to it under Moses., as e.g. homosexuality, adultery and incest were.

Any extra marital sex where neither parties were married or engaged was punished by either having the two people marry or the man being forced to pay a fine.

 

[Peairtach]

Any extra marital sex where neither parties were married or engaged was punished by either having the two people marry or the man being forced to pay a fine.

But was this the case where the woman wasn't under her father's protection?

---------- Post added at 11:22 PM ---------- Previous post was at 11:01 PM ----------

Rushdoony (p395 Institutes of Biblical Law) has it that "punishment was left up to the authorites", apart from the priest's daughter that became a prostitute (Lev 19:29; Deut 23:17; Lev 21:9).

This may be the explanation for an absence of a specific case law on prostitution generally.

Also, if a priest's daughter who became a prostitute was to be burned (alive?) then the authorities could derive a suitable punishment(s) for prostitution generally mutatis mutandis from that for Israel.

 

[TimV]

But was this the case where the woman wasn't under her father's protection?

No, changing one's zip code didn't effect the law.

This may be the explanation for an absence of a specific case law on prostitution generally.

I think punishing extra marital sex is pretty specific. The fact that the law doesn't deal with the amount of money the woman recieved if any or the color of her hair doesn't change anything