I am sure that this has been answered somewhat in some other thread at some other time, but sometimes it is just easier to ask the question than to sift through thousands of possibilities.(which I have done to an extent) Let me state that I am for singing Psalms, even exclusively, for they are God's Word. I am just trying to understand something that keeps coming to mind. Many Psalms mention instruments, to praise God with them. Psalm 33 for example. I think I understand the argument for the lack of instruments in worship now as that they were used, as in ceremonial purposes, which are fulfilled in Christ. And so, in Christ, ceremonial laws, which instruments were commanded under, are now abrogated. Why is it not problematic that Christ has fulfilled the ceremonial but yet we praise him as if he has not yet, as the words are used, but yet we know He fulfilled them? For instance, in LC #156, it says that not every one is allowed to read the Word in public, which cites the Pentateuch and Nehemiah as proofs, which state that it was given to the Levites to do so, which was ceremonial. This is confusing.