In Psalm 41 there is a line that is quoted in John 13:18 9 (psalm 41) "Even my close friend in whom I trusted,who ate my bread, has lifted his heel against me." John 13:18 "I am not speaking of all of you; I know whom I have chosen. But the Scripture will be fulfilled, ‘He who ate my bread has lifted his heel against me.’" The problem is in psalm 41 verse 4 it says "I have sinned against you" then continues on to talk about all of that sinners enemies. 4"As for me, I said, “O LORD, be gracious to me;heal me, for I have sinned against you!” 5 My enemies say of me in malice, “When will he die, and his name perish?” 6 And when one comes to see me, he utters empty words, while his heart gathers iniquity; when he goes out, he tells it abroad. 7 All who hate me whisper together about me; they imagine the worst for me. 8 They say, “A deadly thing is poured out on him; he will not rise again from where he lies.” 9 Even my close friend in whom I trusted, who ate my bread, has lifted his heel against me. 10 But you, O LORD, be gracious to me, It seems Jesus is claiming this Psalm is about him, the problem is Jesus is sinless so this Psalm shouldn't logically be able to be about him. Yet he clearly says Psalm 41 is fulfilled by Judas betraying him. My study shows a couple of responses to the problem, all of which I find lacking. Option 1. Jesus is only referring to verse 9 and not the rest of the Psalm. This makes the text schizophrenic. Imagine I said on the news to a reporter "I have a dog. I also have a cat. Likewise I have a lizard" Saying Jesus only means verse 9 is about him would be him saying that when I said "I have a cat" was about him. Thus I find option 1 dubious Option 2. Jesus became a sinner on the cross or immediately prior to the cross . This option has been advocated in history but runs into other problems with the rest of scripture. Philippians 2:8 "And being found in human form, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross. " Philippians indicates Jesus was perfectly obedient so no act of his was sinful Romans 8:3 "For God has done what the law, weakened by the flesh, could not do. By sending his own Son in the LIKENESS of sinful flesh and for sin, he condemned sin in the flesh" Romans 8:3 says he was in the likeness of sinful flesh not sin actually sinful flesh. So we can't say that he had the taint of original sin either. So what do we do with this?