I have seen the statement made that John of Damascus suggested that the Spirit proceeds from the Father through the Son. This idea is sometimes promoted as a way for East and West to come to agreement about the Filioque. I have two questions:
1. Where did John say this? Or is it something deduced by someone else from his writings?
2. Do you think the formulation works?
1. Where did John say this? Or is it something deduced by someone else from his writings?
2. Do you think the formulation works?