In Acts 21, it James tells Paul to vindicate himself from the charges that he telling people to forsake Jewish customs. Acts 21:26 tells us he went to be purified and offer an offering. Is this only contextualization? It seems strange that Paul should fail against the law and it's yoke and it's advocates in the Judaizers, claim it's fulfilled in Christ and then do this in light of that. Was he not preaching that the ceremonial law is no longer binding? Or are Christian Jews somehow still bound? It seems confusing.