surnamelevi
Puritan Board Freshman
Hi friends! Few months ago through studying with *gasp* hyper-preterists I became convinced of the olivet discourse being a first century prophecy and other such verses. However I could not come to think ALL has come to pass through certain texts to turn me against "hyper" preterism. So just to clarify, I am not a full or hyper preterist.
My problem is through the book of Revelation. I see much of what the preterist stands for to be backed up in the text to speak of first century events. However, I'm having trouble seeing how one interprets the book of Revelation as first century events up until chapter 20. How can the flow of the text support partial preterism?
My problem is through the book of Revelation. I see much of what the preterist stands for to be backed up in the text to speak of first century events. However, I'm having trouble seeing how one interprets the book of Revelation as first century events up until chapter 20. How can the flow of the text support partial preterism?