Old Testament believers standing before God:

[alwaysreforming]

I hope I don't sound too ignorant by asking this question, but....

I understand that when a member of God's covenant community sinned in the Old Testament times, there were sacrifices that were made on his behalf and his sins were atoned for.

How did these sacrifices affect the people's individual standing before God? In other words, were the individuals seen as righteous because their sins had been atoned for and they were placing their faith in God's promise of forgiveness of sins, and especially as it foreshadowed Christ's ultimate sacrifice?

We in todays evangelical world are always using the mantra "a personal relationship with God." Was there any semblance of this for these ancient believers?

I was asked this question today and realized that I too, am ignorant of something so basic as this knowledge should be to me by now.

Any help/thoughts?

 

[andreas]

***How did these sacrifices affect the people's individual standing before God?***



Then shall the King say unto them on his right hand, Come, ye blessed of my Father, inherit the kingdom prepared for you from the foundation of the world. Matt..25:34

The kingdom was prepared from the foundation of the world.

Jesus was slain from the foundation of the world.
Rev. 13:8.

We are only righteous because of the imputed righteousness of Christ and nothing else ,whether we lived in the Old Testament or New Testament era.

andreas.

 

[Ianterrell]

Amen to what Andreas said. Only Christ bore the wrath of God for God's people. Read Rom 5! Christ is the only way to be saved yesterday today and forever. Christ purchased those benefits, and the Holy Spirit applied them.

[Edited on 13-12-2004 by Ianterrell]

 

[Scott]

Christopher:

The way of salvation was the same under the Old and New covenants. Both was through salvation by faith alone. The sacrficies of the old testament were sacraments with the same substance as the sacraments under the New Testament. The sacraments / sacrifices of the Old Testament did not atone for the sins of people in a way that differed from the New Covenant. Check out 1 Cor 10:1-5. Note that they ate and drank the same spiritual food and drink that we do.

Under both testaments people were saved through one Covenant of Grace. This covenant was adminsitered in different ways under the old and new testaments but the substance was the same. The Westminster Confession summarizes this:

V. This covenant was differently administered in the time of the law, and in the time of the gospel: under the law, it was administered by promises, prophecies, sacrifices, circumcision, the paschal lamb, and other types and ordinances delivered to the people of the Jews, all foresignifying Christ to come; which were, for that time, sufficient and efficacious, through the operation of the Spirit, to instruct and build up the elect in faith in the promised Messiah, by whom they had full remission of sins, and eternal salvation; and is called the old testament.

VI. Under the gospel, when Christ, the substance, was exhibited, the ordinances in which this covenant is dispensed are the preaching of the Word, and the administration of the sacraments of baptism and the Lord´s Supper: which, though fewer in number, and administered with more simplicity, and less outward glory, yet, in them, it is held forth in more fullness, evidence and spiritual efficacy, to all nations, both Jews and Gentiles; and is called the new testament. There are not therefore two covenants of grace, differing in substance, but one and the same, under various dispensations.

The people under the Old Testament had the gospel preached to them, just as we do. Hebrews 4:2: "For we also have had the gospel preached to us, just as they did; but the message they heard was of no value to them, because those who heard did not combine it with faith." See also Heb. 4:6.

 

[alwaysreforming]

Thanks for your replies, People. I needed that clarification, especially as you wrote, Scott:

"The sacraments / sacrifices of the Old Testament did not atone for the sins of people in a way that differed from the New Covenant. Check out 1 Cor 10:1-5. Note that they ate and drank the same spiritual food and drink that we do."

So did these believers go home feeling (and knowing themselves to be) COMPLETELY justified, as we do today?

 

[Scott]

Justification was the same under the Old and New Testaments. They were right with God as we are right with God. The NT authors use Old Testament Abraham as an example of someone who was justified by faith. His faith is presented as a model for our justification. See Romans 4 generally, for example. So, yes, they were truly justified.

The perspective of their faith was different in that they were looking forward to the work of Christ yet completed. We look back at His completed work.

Further, the way that God nourished their faith was different. They had a sacrificial system. They had other sacraments, like the rock that provided water. When they partook of these sacraments, they partook of Christ even as when we partake of NT sacraments we partake of Christ. Yet, the substance is the same. That is one point of 1 Cor. 10:1-4. The Reformers held this position against Catholics, who held that the OT did not have true sacraments (signs and seals that confer grace).

Scott

 

[Scott]

Christopher: If you would like I have about a 5 page set of notes on this from an adult Sunday School class I taught. I can email these to you.

 

[alwaysreforming]

Scott,
That'd be great if you wouldn't mind emailing them! ([email protected])

 

[Scott]

Done.