NT use of the OT part 2

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Puritan Board Senior
Reading Longnecker's book (recommended in a previous post) I was dismayed to come across this excerpt from p71 "The citation is introduced by Jesus with the formula "it is written" and directly invokes the "this is that" pesher motif. In application of the passage, the tenses number and vocabulary of the LXX are altered somewhat."

the shepherds plural to shepherd singular
draw out the sheep to the sheep will be scattered

Now this to my way of thinking is MAJOR! Did Jesus alter the text to suit Himself? The inherent assumptions however need to be unpicked. Was Jesus using the LXX or masoretic text? In the NASV I find Christ's quote in Zechariah as he used it - because it is from the Hebrew/Aramaic masoretic text. Jesus had no need to "alter" the LXX because He had access to the original masoretic text used in the synagogues.

I would be interested to hear of other examples where once the underlying assumption of the LXX is removed and the assumption that the masoretic text is used substituted - well, problems just disappear?
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