Tim
Puritan Board Graduate
The scripture reading this past Lord's Day was from John 1. My ears perked up when they got to John 1:13 (NIV) because I heard a word I had not associated with that passage.
The Greek word there is andros, which is a form of aner which means man/male, rather than mankind (anthropos). The KJV, NKJV, MKJV, ASV, NASB, ESV, and Geneva all use "man". Does this alternative translation change the sense of the reading?
I am a beginner at translation and exegesis. Perhaps this is a good place to learn something.
Would anyone care to walk me through this?
...children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husband's will, but born of God. (NIV)
...Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God. (KJV)
The Greek word there is andros, which is a form of aner which means man/male, rather than mankind (anthropos). The KJV, NKJV, MKJV, ASV, NASB, ESV, and Geneva all use "man". Does this alternative translation change the sense of the reading?
I am a beginner at translation and exegesis. Perhaps this is a good place to learn something.
Would anyone care to walk me through this?