Parakaleo
Puritan Board Sophomore
This video podcast from Jeff Riddle (Word Magazine) came out on Friday. In it, Rob McCurley references what I can only assume to be Lane Keister's review of his paper in Why I Preach from the Received Text.
Follow along with the video below to see how to install our site as a web app on your home screen.
Note: This feature may not be available in some browsers.
The link already directs you to the relevant time stamp.The video is quite long. Can you give a time mark for Pastor McCurley's reference? Or in keeping with general discussion decorum, summarize the remarks?
Did he? In the beginning of the discussion Riddle alludes to a chapter written by another pastor but Rob does not affirm or deny this claim. His chapter does cite Genesis 3:1 and he frames his chapter in light of the attacks on scripture that have arisen within and outside the church. But as he says this is uncontroversial and agreed upon by all parties.So it's basically the same old story. Doubling down on the "Satan's Bible" statement.
In particular, he makes a claim about decoupling the phrases "by singular care and providence" and "kept pure in all ages." It might be profitable to have someone interact with that statement. This occurs a few minutes before the link I posted above.Claiming that WCF 1:8 (on the preservation of Scripture "excludes the critical and eclectic texts of Scripture and all translations based upon them (ESV etc) as they draw on manuscripts unavailable and unrecognized by the church for centuries. Utilizing such manuscripts appears to deny the principle that God has providentially preserved his Word; instead this implies that the Lord left his church without the pure Word over an extended period contrary to his infallible promise."
Nobody in this debate disagrees that the Scriptures have been kept pure in all ages by God's singular care and providence. But in the quote I gave he explicitly calls unconfessional anyone who disagrees with him and uses a Bible based on a "critical" text. Which is the vast majority of NAPARC pastors. Meanwhile, he misses the fact that the KJV does not measure up to his own criteria in its "critical" decision to depart from the majority text in at last one place in the OT.Did he? In the beginning of the discussion Riddle alludes to a chapter written by another pastor but Rob does not affirm or deny this claim. His chapter does cite Genesis 3:1 and he frames his chapter in light of the attacks on scripture that have arisen within and outside the church. But as he says this is uncontroversial and agreed upon by all parties.
Here he speaks of "godly guys" and "competent scholars" who differ from him. If he is referring to Lane's response to his chapter McCurley says despite the "brittle bluster" of the words -though he also admits is fine- we ought to cut people slack, namely godly people.
I think his defense is rather mild in word and tone.
In particular, he makes a claim about decoupling the phrases "by singular care and providence" and "kept pure in all ages." It might be profitable to have someone interact with that statement. This occurs a few minutes before the link I posted above.
What very few TR advocates seem to acknowledge is that CT/MT/Sturzian guys do NOT agree with this. We do NOT believe one set of manuscripts should be set over against another set of manuscripts. We do NOT believe that the TR is not the Word of God. Many of you make it a zero sum game, but fail to realize that Reformed CT guys typically don't. That's why we find the Satan's Bible comment offensive. There is usually little attempt to acknowledge what the Reformed CT guys actually say, and what is done instead is the sort of putting words in people's mouths that you just did. Speaking just for myself, I am on record recommending five translations in a published article on English translations. They are the KJV, NKJV, ESV, NASB, and CSB. Many, if not most Reformed CT/MT/Sturzians believe that the differences among the manuscripts are not great enough to justify the confessional bibliology movement's rhetoric.Removing Pastor as a personal factor in my life, and trying my best to remove all bias: what exactly is wrong, about the Satan's Bible comment? I really don't get it. As mentioned in the video, when anyone takes position in the TR or CT camp, it is to the exclusion of other viewpoints.
The word "corruption," as I have tried to demonstrate in other posts, is ambiguous, and should be discarded in the discussion. It implies intentionality where such intentionality is most often lacking. If a scribe makes a mistake, that is what it is: a mistake. The word "corruption" is way too emotionally fraught to be helpful in this discussion. In addition, your comment seems to imply that if corruption has happened that nixes the whole kit and kaboodle. This is something no CT/MT/Sturzian would even remotely accept.that is corruption by definition
I still cannot logically see the bridge from corruptions to “Satan’s bible”.Rev. Keister,
Thank you for your response. What we mean by whether something is "the word of God", misses the mark of what I originally mentioned; namely, that one of the two has been corrupted, either by adding or subtracting. Personally, I was saved reading an NIV, and if Faith cometh by hearing the word of God, then the NIV is at least in some sense the word of God. I could not logically say otherwise, at least in that sense.
Thank you for giving me insight into your position. There is no Pope for the CT, MT, sturzian, or TR positions as you well know. However, people can of course speak for themselves. But again, as I mentioned, if someone believes that the longer ending of Mark as an example, is illegitimate, then the TR adds to the word of God; and though some people may not wish to call it so in such an overt manner, that is corruption by definition. So again, something to bear in mind.
Brother, if you could be charitable and consider your former posts in this matter about the semantics between "lie" and "untruth". I do not mean every person individually who has had a hand in the textual scholarship world had the intention of distorting the text. But rather that all corruptions of the text would be the desire and motive of none other than Satan himself (Genesis 3)The word "corruption" is way too emotionally fraught to be helpful in this discussion.
Post #15, last paragraphI still cannot logically see the bridge from corruptions to “Satan’s bible”.
what exactly is wrong, about the Satan's Bible comment? I really don't get it. As mentioned in the video, when anyone takes position in the TR or CT camp, it is to the exclusion of other viewpoints. The consistent CT tenants believe we are adding to the word, and the TR tenants believe they are taking away from. In both these positions, each one affirms that the opposing text has been corrupted, either by addition or subtraction, that is the logical conclusion when we take a position. When we affirm A, we deny B; and if we affirm B, we deny A. This doesn't stop anyone from holding A or B from having fellowship one with another.
Mason, thank you, I've enjoyed your contributions in the past.I’m at a loss if the obvious problems of “Satan’s Bible” don’t come through. I’d wager that a good majority of us TR folks were converted and convinced of our position from a Bible translation out of that very manuscript tradition. One can have opinions. One can have strong opinions. One need not near anathematized those who differ because of the logical conclusion that holding ‘A’ excludes holding ‘not A’.
Let’s make this a bit more obvious. As far as I know, none of the US FCC guys hold to any form of mediatorial kingship. How would they feel if I died on that hill and made all sorts of railing accusations based on what I believe to be an incorrect view? Granted, that is not a confessional boundary, but not all confessional boundaries are to be defended with equal rigor.
I'm not sure how my opinion about the word "corruption" is uncharitable. I simply don't find the word helpful. On the last sentence, are you implying that accidentally switching "Jesus Christ" to "Christ Jesus" is always and ever the desire and motive of Satan himself? Why can't it simply be an accidental mistake? Why would ALL mistakes be from Satan's hand and desire? I don't think I can go there.Brother, if you could be charitable and consider your former posts in this matter about the semantics between "lie" and "untruth". I do not mean every person individually who has had a hand in the textual scholarship world had the intention of distorting the text. But rather that all corruptions of the text would be the desire and motive of none other than Satan himself (Genesis 3)
Charitable insofar as giving the benefit of the doubt. When I employed the word corruption, I did not mean is it to be laid at the feet of all textual scholars' ill intent, or at least not entirely (the Lord alone knows the hearts of men)I'm not sure how my opinion about the word "corruption" is uncharitable. I simply don't find the word helpful. On the last sentence, are you implying that accidentally switching "Jesus Christ" to "Christ Jesus" is always and ever the desire and motive of Satan himself? Why can't it simply be an accidental mistake? Why would ALL mistakes be from Satan's hand and desire? I don't think I can go there.
Not a bad prayer to pray. Not aware of any ministers that pray so explicitly from the pulpit, no.If one believed indeed in the threat of 'Satan's bible'. Should they not (I assume they do not, correct me if wrong), pray that God would simply remove all such bibles in the world? Does anyone here/or any other Reformed churches do that? There are some logical applications from this conviction.
Ok. But as I was only pointing out the ambiguity of the word, why would you assume I thought you meant the negative connotations? My point was that since a lot of folk use the term ambiguously, sometimes including intent, sometimes not, that therefore the term should be discarded.Charitable insofar as giving the benefit of the doubt. When I employed the word corruption, I did not mean is it to be laid at the feet of all textual scholars' ill intent, or at least not entirely (the Lord alone knows the hearts of men)
There are hundreds of variants in the NT where "Jesus Christ" is switched to "Christ Jesus" and vice versa. You said all corruptions of the text were from the motive and desire of Satan. If you don't mean every last difference, but are only talking about the important ones, clarity here is helpful.I'm not sure what text you're referring to in regards to switching Jesus Christ, and Christ Jesus, but no that wasn't what I was referring to, as much as the variants of John 1:18, John 3:13, 1 Timothy 3:16, Ephesians 3:9, 1 John 5:7, etc. That is what keeps me from using CT/MT/ST.
Just the comment about the word being too "emotionally fraught" is all – which now I understand you meant in general, and not me particularly. I brought up the former posts you had in regards to "lie" and "untruth", because what really is needed above all is clarity. I don't think it's profitable to discard things simply because they can drive emotion, or be easily confused, that's a good pattern of postmodernism.Ok. But as I was only pointing out the ambiguity of the word, why would you assume I thought you meant the negative connotations? My point was that since a lot of folk use the term ambiguously, sometimes including intent, sometimes not, that therefore the term should be discarded.
Rev. Keister, I simply gave a few examples, my examples are not representative of "all" corruptions, but rather some off the top of my head as I sit here in a recliner. Certainly there are more, and in all likelihood more than I am aware of.There are hundreds of variants in the NT where "Jesus Christ" is switched to "Christ Jesus" and vice versa. You said all corruptions of the text were from the motive and desire of Satan. If you don't mean every last difference, but are only talking about the important ones, clarity here is helpful.
If I did (not sure where I worded it in that fashion exactly), I certainly think corruption of God's word is Satan's desire, and the desire of those who know not God. Certainly God himself would not corrupt his own word.You said all corruptions of the text were from the motive and desire of Satan. If you don't mean every last difference, but are only talking about the important ones, clarity here is helpful.
I have been so busy this year Lane. Can you lead me to where I can read this.He didn't mention the more central point of contention I had with him at all, which was the historical point regarding the Arian heresy.
I can confirm this was definitely the case for me.I will only add that if anyone thinks that the Satan's Bible comment is well-calculated to make the TR position more attractive to those not currently holding it, then they are suffering from a severe mental delusion. The only thing it has done is completely polarized people.