MarquezsDg
Puritan Board Freshman
Im sure this has been talked about before. I just finished watching Erhman v. Wallace on "can we trust the NT" It was great debate. I still struglle with the last passages of Mark. My question is simple because both men and many do acknowledge that 9-20 were probaly not written by mark. Why is it then in the bible? If Mark was inspired and he only wrote to verse 8 then that should be it end of story no? If it was added on and those people were not under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit no matter how good their intentions were its wrong right?
Maybe im too simple here, but to me if Mark worte it then it should be there and if he didnt then it shouldnt be. How do you answer someone then that says look heres a passage that you dont know if it was inspired by the Holy Spirit or not.
Maybe im too simple here, but to me if Mark worte it then it should be there and if he didnt then it shouldnt be. How do you answer someone then that says look heres a passage that you dont know if it was inspired by the Holy Spirit or not.