Luke 1 v34

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Eoghan

Puritan Board Senior
Mary was engaged all but married and she is told she will have a son called Jesus. Is there something in the Greek that makes this a "here and now" prediction?

Would it not be more natural to understand this prophecy in terms of her coming marriage to Joseph?
 

SeanPatrickCornell

Puritan Board Sophomore
Clearly Mary took his comment to mean "here and now" or else she wouldn't haven't asked how it could be, and we KNOW the Angel meant it in the "here and now" sense, because that's exactly how it happened.
 

Eoghan

Puritan Board Senior
Yes but is there anything in the Greek? A "present imperative" for example.

The most natural and obvious interpretation was a prediction for her marriage.
 

JP Wallace

Puritan Board Sophomore
Yes but is there anything in the Greek? A "present imperative" for example.
I don't believe there is anything in the Greek that explains how Mary knew it was imminent. I'm not sure what could have been included that would have been understood that way. Perhaps the inclusion of the word μέλλω which can mean "soon" or "about to" . ταχύς literally means quickly but is sometimes translated as "soon".
But none of those are present.
 

Eoghan

Puritan Board Senior
As I continue with my study in Luke and have reached the annunciation in my commentary I realise the clue is in the Greek. Not a verb tense but the prose. Jesus is described as ascending to David's throne. Here in the UK we occasionaly see an article about the sixteenth in line to the throne. Mary was not a noblewoman her son would not be "next-in-line" yet he is described as sitting on David's throne?? Likewise Jesus is described as the Son of the Most High, not a child of God but "THE" Son of God. Then there is the eternal nature of Jesus reign. This was not the plan she had for her children with Joseph.

When she replies her focus is not on her virginity but that she "knows not a man". She knows that storks don't deliver babies and can also say that she has not been with a man. Her confusion is understandable, no doubt she was looking forward to children and hoping they would have a good job (as carpenters) marry well and have lots of granchildren. Gabriel is mapping out a very different future for her son Jesus.

When she says how can this be, she is responding to everything but focusing on the fact she does not yet have a father for her children.
 

JP Wallace

Puritan Board Sophomore
When she says how can this be, she is responding to everything but focusing on the fact she does not yet have a father for her children.
I'm not sure that's strictly correct - betrothal was much stronger than engagement in our world to the extent that a certificate of divorce was required to break it - so at this stage she would have known Joseph would be her husband and (God blessing them with children) he would have been the father of her children. See Matthew 1:19.
 

Bill The Baptist

Puritan Board Graduate
Is it a mystery? I read through this passage in Greek a few weeks ago and I didn't see any mysteries or clues.
I am continually amazed at how many people seem to think that the biblical languages work in some magical way that English and other modern languages do not. Have you ever read an English work and wondered if there was some clue in the grammar that you are missing? Probably not.
 
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