kevin.carroll
Puritan Board Junior
OK, so the poll isn't that serious, but it would be interesting to see what types of breads are used in communion, specifically leavened or unleavened.
Recently Fred threw down the linguistic gauntlet in front of me regarding what type of bread the Lord used at the Last Supper. His question was:
"Seriously, what do you do with the clarity of the Greek difference between unleavened bread ( ἀζυμος ) and leavened bread ( ἀÏτος ), in which the latter is always used of the Supper, even in the Supper account in Mt 26:26, Mark 14:22; and Luke 22:19 ?"
I had set about to absolutely crush him but realized all I needed to do was point out a single exception to his thesis and the whole thing would come crashing down like the proverbial house of cards...so...here it is:
The word "bread" appears in the English Bible roughly 271 times. In both the Old and New Testaments a variety of words appear to describe what we call bread but we will focus on the relevant ones.
In the Old Testament "bread" translates the Hebrew words lechem and matzoh. The LXX/New Testament corresponding words are artos and azumos respectively. Lechem/artos almost (but not quite!) always refers to leavened bread; matzoh/azumos almost (but not quite!) always refers to unleavened bread.
The argument for use of leavened bread in Communion appears to hinge upon the use of the Greek word artos in the Synoptic accounts of the Last Supper Fred referenced above. But is this a valid conclusion?
I'm going to say no (in a non-sanctimonious way ). Here's why: several OT verses in the LXX use artos/azumos interchangeably.
I offer the following as evidence:
Exo. 29:2--Moses is commanded to make bread without yeast. The Hebrew reads lechem/matzoth which the LXX translates artous/azumous. This would seem to indicate that the former term is a more general word for bread while the latter is more specifically referring to unleavened bread. On the face of it, this would seem to support Fred's conclusion, but let us read on.
In Exo. 29:23, and referring to the very same bread (which we know from context is unleavened) Moses calls it lechem and the LXX translates it arton!
Case closed.
OK, I'll continue. There are numerous other texts in which the terms are used interchangeably in both Greek and Hebrew (c.f. for instance Exo. 29:32, 34; Lev. 7:12). It seems then that they are synonyms that sometimes (but not always) imply something about the nature of the bread.
In other words, we cannot dogmatically say based on the Greek term used in the Synoptics whether or not the Lord instituted the Lord's Supper with leavened or unleavened bread.
We CAN, however, categorically say so based on historical, theological, and logical grounds that a). Jesus was celebrating the Passover, b). Passover meals ALWAYS involved the use unleavened bread, ergo Jesus must have used unleavened bread.
The question remaims whether or not his example is binding in the sacrament...
Recently Fred threw down the linguistic gauntlet in front of me regarding what type of bread the Lord used at the Last Supper. His question was:
"Seriously, what do you do with the clarity of the Greek difference between unleavened bread ( ἀζυμος ) and leavened bread ( ἀÏτος ), in which the latter is always used of the Supper, even in the Supper account in Mt 26:26, Mark 14:22; and Luke 22:19 ?"
I had set about to absolutely crush him but realized all I needed to do was point out a single exception to his thesis and the whole thing would come crashing down like the proverbial house of cards...so...here it is:
The word "bread" appears in the English Bible roughly 271 times. In both the Old and New Testaments a variety of words appear to describe what we call bread but we will focus on the relevant ones.
In the Old Testament "bread" translates the Hebrew words lechem and matzoh. The LXX/New Testament corresponding words are artos and azumos respectively. Lechem/artos almost (but not quite!) always refers to leavened bread; matzoh/azumos almost (but not quite!) always refers to unleavened bread.
The argument for use of leavened bread in Communion appears to hinge upon the use of the Greek word artos in the Synoptic accounts of the Last Supper Fred referenced above. But is this a valid conclusion?
I'm going to say no (in a non-sanctimonious way ). Here's why: several OT verses in the LXX use artos/azumos interchangeably.
I offer the following as evidence:
Exo. 29:2--Moses is commanded to make bread without yeast. The Hebrew reads lechem/matzoth which the LXX translates artous/azumous. This would seem to indicate that the former term is a more general word for bread while the latter is more specifically referring to unleavened bread. On the face of it, this would seem to support Fred's conclusion, but let us read on.
In Exo. 29:23, and referring to the very same bread (which we know from context is unleavened) Moses calls it lechem and the LXX translates it arton!
Case closed.
OK, I'll continue. There are numerous other texts in which the terms are used interchangeably in both Greek and Hebrew (c.f. for instance Exo. 29:32, 34; Lev. 7:12). It seems then that they are synonyms that sometimes (but not always) imply something about the nature of the bread.
In other words, we cannot dogmatically say based on the Greek term used in the Synoptics whether or not the Lord instituted the Lord's Supper with leavened or unleavened bread.
We CAN, however, categorically say so based on historical, theological, and logical grounds that a). Jesus was celebrating the Passover, b). Passover meals ALWAYS involved the use unleavened bread, ergo Jesus must have used unleavened bread.
The question remaims whether or not his example is binding in the sacrament...