Hello, This is a bit of an awkward question, but I was hoping that you folks could help me understand it. Leviticus 20:18 teaches that if a man and a woman have sex during her period, they should be cut off from the congregation. My questions are as follows: 1. Is this act (sex during menstruation) a sinful act in and of itself, or was it simply sinful because it had earlier (in Leviticus) been described as making one unclean? 2. Were the perpetrators excommunicated because they had committed the act or because they were unclean (or both)? 3. This is confusing because the immediate context (Leviticus 20) contains many other sexual prohibitions that we would still consider binding as Christians. Thanks!