martyrologist
Puritan Board Freshman
I dialogue with LDS members a lot online. I have been in a discussion on justification sola fide and what Paul has written in Romans. Now, they present that "works of the law" specifically refers to "works of the Law of Moses" and not works in general (for instance, Romans iii); in fact, believing is a work (and so on they say). So when the text says that no man is justified by works or works of the law, they agree because the law was fulfilled in or by Christ.
At this point they bring in James ii and say that justification is by faith and works.
I am only presently dealing with the Romans passage. I let them know that if you want to bring into the discussion another passage and apply an interpretation of the new passage to the one we are presently dealing with, we will have to go to that passage, exegete the text and see what the text is actually saying first. But, Romans is clear enough in my view.
I am looking for how others would respond to this idea in Romans, that works (i.e. as is mentioned in Rom. iv.1-6) only speaks of works of the Law of Moses, which have been fulfilled, so we are left to be justified by our faith and works.
Thanks.
At this point they bring in James ii and say that justification is by faith and works.
I am only presently dealing with the Romans passage. I let them know that if you want to bring into the discussion another passage and apply an interpretation of the new passage to the one we are presently dealing with, we will have to go to that passage, exegete the text and see what the text is actually saying first. But, Romans is clear enough in my view.
I am looking for how others would respond to this idea in Romans, that works (i.e. as is mentioned in Rom. iv.1-6) only speaks of works of the Law of Moses, which have been fulfilled, so we are left to be justified by our faith and works.
Thanks.