Latin Question

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Hamalas

whippersnapper
I've got a rookie Latin question for you.

I'm working my way through the optional exercises in the sixth edition of Wheelock's Latin and have come across a problem. I was doing question 18 from chapter five which reads: "Malos igitur in patria nostra superabimus." (Sorry, I don't know how to include the proper markings). I translated this as: "Therefore, we shall overcome the evil in our country." However, the answer key says that the proper translation is: "Therefore, we shall overcome evil men in our country."

My question is this, where do the "men" come from?
 
My question is this, where do the "men" come from?

Looks like the plural form here means that the adjective is implying an unstated subject. It would be a bit clearer in Greek where the presence or absence of an article would tell you. Evil ones might be a more precise translation, but (as Wheelock is generally drawing from a classical source) it is also likely that context makes the translation clearer.
 
In Latin, adjectives can be used as substantives without nouns. When that is the case, the gender of the adjective can supply the "substantive." So malos would be "evil men" and malas would be "evil women" and mala would be "evil things."

This is very standard - you will come across it over and over again in Wheelock.
 
Good one, Heidi. That very confusion between malum (apple) and malum (evil) is why it's most common to hear and see the forbidden fruit described as an apple.
 
This very confusion between apple and evil also lead to the ever popular (especially among high school students!) doggerel: malo malo malo malo: I would rather be in an apple tree than a naughty boy in adversity.
 
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