Galatians chapter 2, verse 16, says;
"16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith OF Jesus Christ, even we have believed IN Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith OF Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified."
http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/NTpdf/gal2.pdf
The expressions dia pisteos, ek pisteos, and pistei, which can all be translated as “by means of” or “through” faith are common in the New Testament. But what about the phrasing here in this particular verse, Galatians 2:16. I am trying to understand why Paul choose to phrase verse 16 thusly.
I have several baptists friends who are influenced by primitive baptist thought and who deny the intrumentality of faith. Is this verse above better rendered the faith OF Jesus Christ or faith in Jesus Christ?
Justified by the Faith OF Jesus Christ, not by Ours.... | The Scholars Corner
What insight can I draw from the construction of this verse?
"16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith OF Jesus Christ, even we have believed IN Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith OF Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified."
http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/NTpdf/gal2.pdf
διὰ πίστεως Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ
The expressions dia pisteos, ek pisteos, and pistei, which can all be translated as “by means of” or “through” faith are common in the New Testament. But what about the phrasing here in this particular verse, Galatians 2:16. I am trying to understand why Paul choose to phrase verse 16 thusly.
I have several baptists friends who are influenced by primitive baptist thought and who deny the intrumentality of faith. Is this verse above better rendered the faith OF Jesus Christ or faith in Jesus Christ?
Justified by the Faith OF Jesus Christ, not by Ours.... | The Scholars Corner
What insight can I draw from the construction of this verse?