I would greatly appreciate anybody with knowledge of Greek, or simply systematics to help me out.
Here are the verses:
I am thoroughly convinced that justification precedes sanctification...and I don't believe we're justified by an "infusion" of Christ's righteousness...but how do we respond to Romanists who think, especially this 1 Cor 6:11 quote, show that justification follows sanctification?
Here are the verses:
Rom. 5:16Again, the gift of God is not like the result of the one man's sin: The judgment followed one sin and brought condemnation, but the gift followed many trespasses and brought justification. 17For if, by the trespass of the one man, reigned through that one man, how much more will those who receive God's abundant provision of grace and of the gift of righteousness reign in life through the one man, Jesus Christ. 18Consequently, just as the result of one trespass was condemnation for all men, so also the result of one act of righteousness was justification that brings life for all men. 19For just as through the disobedience of the one man the many were made sinners, so also through the obedience of the one man the many will be made righteous."
1 Cor. 6: "But you were washed, you were sanctified, you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and by the Spirit of our God."
I am thoroughly convinced that justification precedes sanctification...and I don't believe we're justified by an "infusion" of Christ's righteousness...but how do we respond to Romanists who think, especially this 1 Cor 6:11 quote, show that justification follows sanctification?