I used this title to hopeful draw more people to this discussion. Knowing that wine in the Lords Supper was not disputed in the Christian Church for close to 1800 years, and that every commentary you pick up (that I know of) says “fruit of the vine” is wine, what justification does one have for substituting wine for grape juice, knowing that the Lord Himself instituted the Supper with wine? I should also note that I have heard the argument that once you open the cap of juice, it starts the fermentation process. Well, knowing first hand how the fermentation process works, this is not true. Also, there is quite a big difference between “just starting the fermentation process” and already aged wine, which was instituted by Christ. I also find the “what about alcoholics in the church” argument misplaced. It suggests there weren’t alcoholics for 1800 years before the pasteurization process, IMO. Thanks in advance!