judgment

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reform1509

Puritan Board Freshman
How would you answer a person who thought that the only sin for which we will be judged is that of rejecting Christ? Set out the grounds for judgment mentioned in the New Testament, and list your arguments for the correct view that all sin will be judged.

Any thoughts?
 
Mat 12:36    But I say unto you, That every idle word that men shall speak, they shall give account thereof in the day of judgment.

1Ti 5:24    Some men's sins are open beforehand, going before to judgment; and some men they follow after.

Rom 2:5    But after thy hardness and impenitent heart treasurest up unto thyself wrath against the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God;Rom 2:6    Who will render to every man according to his deeds:
 
Some advance the premise that the Atonement of Christ is unlimited... mostly. This is the starting point for most of the confusion you're dealing with.

That is to say, they believe all sin has been atoned for, and there is no more judgment due for it. So, what still condemns people? Supposedly, not taking advantage of the offer of mercy, "rejecting the Son."

But, isn't this response SIN? If so, then it too has been atoned for, yes? If it hasn't, then everyone has one (infinite) sin to pay for themselves, correct? In which case, there's no hope for anyone, because no one can cover an infinite debt.

Or is it only some people (believers) who have this sin paid for, and some (the rejecters) don't? Who calls that shot? Who is ultimately responsible for salvation in that case? And if this situation is true, is it really honest to say that ALL sin has been paid for? This is telling people, "Everything (almost) has been done for you... there's just this one little thing you have to do to contribute to your salvation... without which you won't get your gift... you get the last little bit forgiven IF you do this... just believe..." And for some, "don't stop believing, or it's all for naught."

Some folks try to evade the dilemma by asserting that rejecting God's offer isn't sin. But refusal is the height of unbelief; it constitutes a positive claim that God's Word is open to legitimate doubt, and that calling his veracity in question isn't blameworthy. This theory denies (at the deepest level) that men have a duty to believe God. (If it isn't a duty, then it's "optional.") Opting for hell isn't sin? Preference for separation from God, for "happiness" or "good" without him? Sure it is. It was the very first sin.

For others, their preferred solution is either to admit universalism (that everyone must be saved), or to protest the demand for consistency. The latter would just rather live with the various difficulties their a prioris have forced upon them.


Thus, the basic question comes back to the matter of whether, for every person considered individually, ALL his sin paid for, or NONE of it? Even if it was just one sin unpaid for, it might as well be all of them since the result would be the same. Scripture texts have already been set forth above, clearly stating that all manner of sin brings one into judgment.
 
How would you answer a person who thought that the only sin for which we will be judged is that of rejecting Christ?

Our risen Lord tells us plainly that, apart from his righteousness, we indeed will be judged according to our works:

Rev 22:11 He that is unjust, let him be unjust still: and he which is filthy, let him be filthy still: and he that is righteous, let him be righteous still: and he that is holy, let him be holy still.
Rev 22:12 And, behold, I come quickly; and my reward is with me, to give every man according as his work shall be.
 
Whose sins did Christ pay for by His death on the cross?

1. All the sins of all men?
2. All the sins of some men?
3. Some of the sins of all men?

In which case it may be said:

That if #3 be true, all men have some sins to answer for, and so, none are saved.

That if #2 be true, then Christ, in their stead suffered and paid for all the sins of all the elect in the whole world, and this is the truth.

But if #1 be the case, why are not all men free from the punishment due unto their sins?
You answer, "Because of unbelief."

I ask, Is this unbelief a sin, or is it not?

If unbelief is a sin, then did Christ suffer the punishment for that sin as well or not?

If He did, why must that sin of unbelief hinder them more than their other sins for which He died?

The correct biblical answer is #2. Jesus Christ bore all the sins of all the elect that the Father gave to Him.

-John Owen (Paraphrase)
 
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