Jude 1:4

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Anthony DeNicola

Puritan Board Freshman
What is the proper translation for Jude 1:4? In the NKJV, KJV it appears that the Father is referred to as Lord and in the modern translations , NASB, ESV, LSB etc. it is Christ who is referred to as Master or Lord in the text .

The Greek word used is despotes and not Kurios. Which if referring to Christ would be the only time we’re despotes is used to refer to Him(Christ) to my understanding.

“For there are certain men crept in unawares, who were before of old ordained to this condemnation, ungodly men, turning the grace of our God into lasciviousness, and denying the only Lord God, and our Lord Jesus Christ.
‭‭Jude‬ ‭1‬:‭4‬ ‭KJV‬‬

“For certain persons have crept in unnoticed, those who were long beforehand marked out for this condemnation, ungodly persons who turn the grace of our God into licentiousness and deny our only Master and Lord, Jesus Christ.”
‭‭Jude‬ ‭1‬:‭4‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬
 
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It is the typical variation found in manuscript families. KJV and NKJV mostly follow the "textus receptus" line of manuscripts and most modern translations follow the "critical text" family of manuscripts. (Yes, I know an oversimplification).

The TR manuscripts have "theon" after "despotes" so the translation is "Lord God."

The CT manuscripts don't have "theon", so those translations reconcile the Greek phrase as "our only master and our Lord Jesus Christ."

But even the KJV use of "God" does not necessarily limit it to the Father.
 
Thanks for the response . Much appreciated. It sounds like this then boils down to which set of manuscripts are correct ; TR or Critical at least pertaining to this verse .

I think it interesting that there’s no other usage to my understand of Despotes referring to Christ and we see it used a few times as referring to the Father . What do you think ?
 
I haven’t looked at it much, but despotes doesn’t carry the same negative connotation as “despot” in English. It can mean “master” in a positive sense. So it doesn’t shake me up much to see it refer to Christ.
 
Yea I agree . I would have no issues with it referring to Christ . If you have a chance look into , curious to know what you think .

My question arises from the usage of despotes in 2 Peter 2:1 “denying the Lord who bought them(false teachers)”
 
Yea I agree . I would have no issues with it referring to Christ . If you have a chance look into , curious to know what you think .

My question arises from the usage of despotes in 2 Peter 2:1 “denying the Lord who bought them(false teachers)”
I am also interested in an explanation, as the Provisionist I talked to in the past insists that 2 Pet 2:1 disproves limited atonement and/or the perseverance of the saints.
 
You may be interested in this video which has a majority-text scholar and a scholar who prefers the critical-text discussing some of the textual variants in Jude. I believe this is one of them, although it's not focused on as much as other variants.

The video is approachable and easy to follow even if you didn't follow my description of it. :)
 
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