Josh Walker, over at Bring the Books, has an interesting post on this notorious passage. He follows Carson/Moo in saying it is not Scripture, a position I am unwilling to take for a variety of reasons. My question to you preaching types out there is, how do you handle issues like this when preaching verse-by-verse? Back in the "glory days," when everyone had a KJV, issues like this were not issues. But now, when you have various translations relegating the passage to a footnote or, worse, set off by brackets and reader advisories, it seems that you cannot ignore the textual problem. I found Calvin helpful: Thoughts?