John 6:35

Status
Not open for further replies.

coramdeo

Puritan Board Sophomore
I have bee listening to Dr. Sproul's lectures on the eight "I am"s in John.
He states that in 6:35 and the others that follow an unusual form of I am is used combining "ego" and "eimi " together hearkening back to Septuagint in Duet. where God tells his name to Moses. Would anyone care to offer comment in terms a layman can understand? Thanks
 
I have bee listening to Dr. Sproul's lectures on the eight "I am"s in John.
He states that in 6:35 and the others that follow an unusual form of I am is used combining "ego" and "eimi " together hearkening back to Septuagint in Duet. where God tells his name to Moses. Would anyone care to offer comment in terms a layman can understand? Thanks

In the Greek it is εγω ειμι . ειμι by itself means "I am". εγω (I) added makes the statement emphatic.

The Septuagint (the Greek translation of the OT) at Exodus 3:14 has εγω ειμι
 
I have bee listening to Dr. Sproul's lectures on the eight "I am"s in John.
He states that in 6:35 and the others that follow an unusual form of I am is used combining "ego" and "eimi " together hearkening back to Septuagint in Duet. where God tells his name to Moses. Would anyone care to offer comment in terms a layman can understand? Thanks

In the Greek it is εγω ειμι . ειμι by itself means "I am". εγω (I) added makes the statement emphatic.

The Septuagint (the Greek translation of the OT) at Exodus 3:14 has εγω ειμι

Bob,

Thanks for noting this. One question: I seem to recall that others in the NT besides our Lord and Savior use the emphatic εγω ειμι; is that correct?

God bless,
 
Adam, doing a quick search for occurrences of ego eimi in the NT, the only instance I can find of someone (besides Jesus) using that exact form of the emphatic statement is Gabriel in Luke 1:19 ("I am Gabriel"). A different construction (ego gar eimi -- "For I am ... ") appears on the lips of Zecharias in the previous verse, where he states he is an old man. In other instances, the negative form is used when Jesus' disciples ask about the one who will betray Him ("Surely not I ..."). Jesus also warns that many will come and claim to be the Christ, using the same form. Finally, Jesus uses the same formula in Matthew 22:32 ("I am the God of Abraham ..."), quoting from the OT.
 
Adam, doing a quick search for occurrences of ego eimi in the NT, the only instance I can find of someone (besides Jesus) using that exact form of the emphatic statement is Gabriel in Luke 1:19 ("I am Gabriel"). A different construction (ego gar eimi -- "For I am ... ") appears on the lips of Zecharias in the previous verse, where he states he is an old man. In other instances, the negative form is used when Jesus' disciples ask about the one who will betray Him ("Surely not I ..."). Jesus also warns that many will come and claim to be the Christ, using the same form. Finally, Jesus uses the same formula in Matthew 22:32 ("I am the God of Abraham ..."), quoting from the OT.

Thanks for the research!

I thought I recalled that construction elsewhere.

Cheers,
 
I have bee listening to Dr. Sproul's lectures on the eight "I am"s in John.
He states that in 6:35 and the others that follow an unusual form of I am is used combining "ego" and "eimi " together hearkening back to Septuagint in Duet. where God tells his name to Moses. Would anyone care to offer comment in terms a layman can understand? Thanks

In the Greek it is εγω ειμι . ειμι by itself means "I am". εγω (I) added makes the statement emphatic.

The Septuagint (the Greek translation of the OT) at Exodus 3:14 has εγω ειμι

Bob,

Thanks for noting this. One question: I seem to recall that others in the NT besides our Lord and Savior use the emphatic εγω ειμι; is that correct?

God bless,



Romans 11:13 For I speak to you Gentiles; inasmuch as I am (εγω ειμι) an apostle to the Gentiles, I magnify my ministry,

The phrase is emphatic regardless of who uses it.

.
 
Romans 11:13 For I speak to you Gentiles; inasmuch as I am (εγω ειμι) an apostle to the Gentiles, I magnify my ministry,

The phrase is emphatic regardless of who uses it.

:oops: I was in a hurry and only checked the gospels. Bob is correct; there are other occurrences of the construction.

Acts 22:3 -- (Paul says) "I am a Jew"

Acts 26:19 -- "I would wish to God, that whether in a short or long time, not only you, but also all who hear me this day, might become such as I am, except for these chains."

There are a few others in Acts, but they are spoken by Jesus (or are quoting Jesus).

There is this interesting one in 1 Timothy 1:15 -- "It is a trustworthy statement, deserving full acceptance, that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners, among whom I am foremost."

The form of the "I am" statement here is actually reversed -- "eimi ego"!
 
I have bee listening to Dr. Sproul's lectures on the eight "I am"s in John.
He states that in 6:35 and the others that follow an unusual form of I am is used combining "ego" and "eimi " together hearkening back to Septuagint in Duet. where God tells his name to Moses. Would anyone care to offer comment in terms a layman can understand? Thanks

In the Greek it is εγω ειμι . ειμι by itself means "I am". εγω (I) added makes the statement emphatic.

The Septuagint (the Greek translation of the OT) at Exodus 3:14 has εγω ειμι

What does the Masoretic Hebrew text say?
 
Theological Significance

I think our OP is probably interested in what significance, if any, this Greek construction has on our theology. It must be stated up front that the mere phrase εγω ειμι does not carry any implications of divinity, Messiahship, etc. It was a common phrase.

Yet, on the other hand, it is also significant in the Ex. 3:14 passage, where God reveals his name to Moses. Jews certainly remembered that and would recognize an allusion if spoken in the correct context. (We can be certain that, even if Jesus spoke Aramaic, there was an equivalent phrase.) So, Jesus saying εγω ειμι or another ancient language equivalent would not mean much of anything except for the specific instances in which he does so.

If you will focus your attention on John, you will find that Jesus uses εγω ειμι at moments that highlight his divine nature and Messianic status. This is not mere coincedence, but a concerted literary effort by John to make his point. If you examine only those cases in which εγω ειμι does not take a completer, you are left with these few passages (examine the contexts):

ESV John 4:26 Jesus said to her, "I who speak to you am he."

ESV John 6:20 But he said to them, "It is I; do not be afraid."

ESV John 8:24 I told you that you would die in your sins, for unless you believe that I am he you will die in your sins."

ESV John 8:28 So Jesus said to them, "When you have lifted up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am he, and that I do nothing on my own authority, but speak just as the Father taught me.

ESV John 8:58 Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am."

ESV John 13:19 I am telling you this now, before it takes place, that when it does take place you may believe that I am he.

John 18:5-6 5 They answered him, "Jesus of Nazareth." Jesus said to them, "I am he." Judas, who betrayed him, was standing with them. 6 When Jesus said to them, "I am he," they drew back and fell to the ground.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top