Charles Purrgeon
Puritan Board Freshman
Hi all!
I am preaching a sermon on definite atonement soon, and want to talk about some objections that could come up, with one of the major ones being John 3:16. I know that the verse can be literally translated 'all the believing ones'. The question I have is: why don't any English translations seem to translate it like this? It is not a difficult phrase to understand, and doesn't seem that awkward to me. Wouldn't this help to clarify the verse better?
(I am not asking this to 'have a go' at Bible translators. Rather, I am trying to understand why the verse has not been translated this way).
Thank you.
I am preaching a sermon on definite atonement soon, and want to talk about some objections that could come up, with one of the major ones being John 3:16. I know that the verse can be literally translated 'all the believing ones'. The question I have is: why don't any English translations seem to translate it like this? It is not a difficult phrase to understand, and doesn't seem that awkward to me. Wouldn't this help to clarify the verse better?
(I am not asking this to 'have a go' at Bible translators. Rather, I am trying to understand why the verse has not been translated this way).
Thank you.