"And from his fullness we have all received, grace upon grace." (John 1:16). Reading one of Matthew Henry's sermons on this verse earlier, he suggested that the latter clause could be translated "grace instead of grace" (the Greek reads "χάριν ἀντὶ χάριτος"); and my Greek Interlinear agrees with this translation. Is anyone here able to comment further on this issue? If so, is the purpose of the text to teach us that there is a greater outpouring of grace in the New Testament? In view of verse 17, that conclusion would seem to make sense. Moreover, Strong's Concordance suggests that the preposition ἀντὶ may denote that the author is making a contrast.