Canadian _Shawn
Puritan Board Freshman
Hello all,
I was just wondering how a covenant theologian would exegete John 1:11-13, and explain it in light of such terms as "covenant children", infant baptism, etc.
It seems to me that this verse clearly states that the only people who have the right to be children of God (ie: in the covenant of grace) are those who believe in the name of Christ, and specifically not those born of any particular parental lineage. Any ideas?
Cheers,
Shawn
I was just wondering how a covenant theologian would exegete John 1:11-13, and explain it in light of such terms as "covenant children", infant baptism, etc.
It seems to me that this verse clearly states that the only people who have the right to be children of God (ie: in the covenant of grace) are those who believe in the name of Christ, and specifically not those born of any particular parental lineage. Any ideas?
Cheers,
Shawn