Jeremiah 33

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turmeric

Megerator
Maybe this will work better.

If Christ is a priest forever after the order of Melchizedek, then what does it mean when God tells Jeremiah that there will always be someone from the tribe of Levi to offer sacrifices before Him?

1) Will there always be sacrifices? What kind?

2) If Jesus is of the Melchizedek order, how can he fulfill this specific prophecy to the tribe of Levi?

These kinds of things bother me, please don't assume I've read everything you have and say "What question-I don't see one" Thanks
 

Puritan Sailor

Puritan Board Doctor
17"For thus says the LORD: "David shall never lack a man to sit on the throne of the house of Israel; 18nor shall the priests, the Levites, lack a man to offer burnt offerings before Me, to kindle grain offerings, and to sacrifice continually."'

Just an initial observation. I seems to me that the promise is that there whould always be somone to be priest, not necessarily a Levite to be priest. If I'm reading correctly then that means they have Christ to be their preist forever. Plus, we have the examle of Samuel serving before the Lord under Eli, and he was of the tribe of Ephraim not Levi. Just some thoughts...
 

turmeric

Megerator
Thanks, it doesn't answer all my questions, but it's helpful. However, why is God so specific about the House of David, but " Levites" doesn't necessarily mean Levites? With this reasoning, any king from any tribe would fulfill the prophecy in the same verses, about the House of David. I'm sure there's an answer to this. Thanks guys!
 

WrittenFromUtopia

Puritan Board Graduate
We are priests as believers, and we offer a "sacrifice of praise with our lips" under the NC, right? *shrug* I'm probably way off... :um:
 
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