Whereas most commentaries simply assume direct speech when suggesting possible solutions for the interpretation of James 2:18, Blomberg and Kamell (James: Exegetical Commentary on the New Testament, 2008) suggest that it be taken as indirect speech. They claim that "... in Koine Greek, the sharp, classical boundaries between direct and indirect discourse were often blurred, and writers might shift suddenly from one to the other without any contextual indicators" (page. 134). They support this statement by a reference to a book by Blass, Debrunner and Funk (A Greek Grammar of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, 1961). Any thoughts on this?