I read "Infant Baptism and the Covenant of Grace" by Paul Jewett a few months back, and one of the arguments that stood out to me was the fact that Abraham circumcised Ishmael after he already knew that the covenant would be established with Isaac(Gen 17). I haven't seen this addressed by paedobaptists anywhere though I don't doubt that it has been.
This is my question. How do you explain the discontinuity between the sign of circumcision in which both the child of promise and the child not in the covenant were included, and the sign of baptism in which only the covenant children are baptized?
Forgive me if at any point I've misrepresented your position. Thanks!
This is my question. How do you explain the discontinuity between the sign of circumcision in which both the child of promise and the child not in the covenant were included, and the sign of baptism in which only the covenant children are baptized?
Forgive me if at any point I've misrepresented your position. Thanks!