InSlaveryToChrist
Puritan Board Junior
Recently I read one of the best illustrations of the agonies of the cross of Christ (here). The sermon by Andrew Bonar focuses on "the cup of God's wrath" that is seemingly experienced to a measure by both elect and unelect according to the Bible. Here are some questions that I'm struggling with at the moment:
1. Are there different types of cups of God's fury (some for elect, some for unelect; some for regenerate, some for unregenerate)?
2. Did only Christ and people in hell drink of "the [bitter] dregs of the cup of God's wrath"? The emphasis of the aforementioned sermon is this, but ironically a seemingly contradictory Isaiah 51:17 is not tackled with, which leads me to the next question.
3. In Isaiah 51:17, what is meant by the passage that says Jerusalem "hast drunk the dregs of the cup of trembling, and wrung them out"? It seems to me that there are only two viable options here: either Jerusalem refers to Christ or this particular cup is not the cup that Christ and people in hell drunk of.
4. Did Christ drink of the cup of God's wrath throughout His life and finally the dregs of it on the cross, OR only at the cross? The last option would imply that the agonies of Christ during His life outside the cross were either not propitionary toward God and His wrath, OR there was another cup He drank of also (which wouldn't make any sense to me).
I wanna settle this cup of God's wrath thing once and for all! Please, help me and shed some light to the issue!
1. Are there different types of cups of God's fury (some for elect, some for unelect; some for regenerate, some for unregenerate)?
2. Did only Christ and people in hell drink of "the [bitter] dregs of the cup of God's wrath"? The emphasis of the aforementioned sermon is this, but ironically a seemingly contradictory Isaiah 51:17 is not tackled with, which leads me to the next question.
3. In Isaiah 51:17, what is meant by the passage that says Jerusalem "hast drunk the dregs of the cup of trembling, and wrung them out"? It seems to me that there are only two viable options here: either Jerusalem refers to Christ or this particular cup is not the cup that Christ and people in hell drunk of.
4. Did Christ drink of the cup of God's wrath throughout His life and finally the dregs of it on the cross, OR only at the cross? The last option would imply that the agonies of Christ during His life outside the cross were either not propitionary toward God and His wrath, OR there was another cup He drank of also (which wouldn't make any sense to me).
I wanna settle this cup of God's wrath thing once and for all! Please, help me and shed some light to the issue!