Puritan Board Sophomore
I'd have a little bit more to work with if you would stay with the same argument for more than a few posts. I'm having trouble figuring out just what exactly you're arguing for.
Are the Psalms deficient because they don't have the Greek word "Jesus" in them?
Is the RPW deficient because it pits the 2nd commandment against the third?
Can songs not have the Greek word "Jesus" in them and still be acceptable? If the answer to this question is "yes," then I don't even see what the point of this thread is. You said you liked Piper's ditty so what's your problem with the 2nd commandment's divine authorization of only the Psalms?
I really do appreciate that you've moved on, at least for a moment, from the "sing a new song" mantra and become a little more creative but keeping up with just what it is you're trying to get across throughout this thread has been difficult.
JD, If you acknowledge that we can sing songs in worship that do not include the word "Jesus," then you can't argue that we are required, whether by explicit command, approved example, or good and necessary consequence, to use the word "Jesus" in our songs. You should therefore have no problem with practical exclusive psalmody, although you protest vigorously against doctrinal exclusive psalmody -- since actually maintaining this as a principle precludes the singing of any songs which include the word "Jesus," which you insist is wrong because of the requirement of Scripture by good and........oh wait, never mind.