Confessor
Puritan Board Senior
When I was thinking of the main difference between classical and presuppositional apologetics, I noted that the latter maintains that we should first submit to the Bible, to God's interpretation of the world, rather than to any man's supposedly authoritative interpretation of the world. The entire history of secular philosophy presupposes autonomy, that man's interpretation of the world has primacy.
Then I realized that this is partly because the latter presupposes that man is completely able and fit to interpret reality rightly, thereby denying that he is pervasively affected by original sin. And a denial of original sin is (semi-)Pelagian.
What do you all think?
Then I realized that this is partly because the latter presupposes that man is completely able and fit to interpret reality rightly, thereby denying that he is pervasively affected by original sin. And a denial of original sin is (semi-)Pelagian.
What do you all think?