BarryR
Puritan Board Freshman
Good afternoon Gentlemen and Ladies,
I have a question that I would love some assistance on.
The works of the Law are written on the hearts of all men. This would imply that that homosexual acts were always sinful - before Moses and after Moses. Moses just codified it. It was judged in Sodom to prove the lawlessness of it (among other things). This is how we can say the gentile that doesn't have the law still does what the law requires - or not. All men have the moral law on their hearts - polluted by sin of course.
What do we do about incest? Do people "know" that it is wrong? If so why did Adam's children marry each other? For instance - if a man practiced homosexuality without knowledge of the written Law - he still does it against the work of the law on his heart. If someone practice's incest today without the written law he does it because it is doing what is "right" because there is nothing about incest in the moral law written on our heats - if so, Cain and Abel would have felt conflict to not marry their sisters just like they would have felt conflict to practice homosexuality - even though nothing was stated prohibiting either. God would have also given them no other option then to choose sin - which He never does. This of course assumes we are created today just as Cain was created.
In short - people that marry their siblings today without the codified law can not be said to be doing such because their hearts are darkened. They are only acting with how they were created. They can be said to acting opposed to the Law given by Moses. I do think there could be arguments made for breaking other moral commandments (because of the genetic issues that occur and therefore not having love for our neighbor - being unborn children)
Clearly God allowed and even authorized incest as a good thing and intended it to be from the beginning. Cain and Able were created without having any aversion to this practice (unlike, say, homosexuality). Are will still created without this aversion today even though He has changed what is allowed for a lawful marriage?
Thoughts?
I have a question that I would love some assistance on.
The works of the Law are written on the hearts of all men. This would imply that that homosexual acts were always sinful - before Moses and after Moses. Moses just codified it. It was judged in Sodom to prove the lawlessness of it (among other things). This is how we can say the gentile that doesn't have the law still does what the law requires - or not. All men have the moral law on their hearts - polluted by sin of course.
What do we do about incest? Do people "know" that it is wrong? If so why did Adam's children marry each other? For instance - if a man practiced homosexuality without knowledge of the written Law - he still does it against the work of the law on his heart. If someone practice's incest today without the written law he does it because it is doing what is "right" because there is nothing about incest in the moral law written on our heats - if so, Cain and Abel would have felt conflict to not marry their sisters just like they would have felt conflict to practice homosexuality - even though nothing was stated prohibiting either. God would have also given them no other option then to choose sin - which He never does. This of course assumes we are created today just as Cain was created.
In short - people that marry their siblings today without the codified law can not be said to be doing such because their hearts are darkened. They are only acting with how they were created. They can be said to acting opposed to the Law given by Moses. I do think there could be arguments made for breaking other moral commandments (because of the genetic issues that occur and therefore not having love for our neighbor - being unborn children)
Clearly God allowed and even authorized incest as a good thing and intended it to be from the beginning. Cain and Able were created without having any aversion to this practice (unlike, say, homosexuality). Are will still created without this aversion today even though He has changed what is allowed for a lawful marriage?
Thoughts?
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), but not "know" that it was wrong apart from reading the Old Testament. Of course upon further reading of these verses I could see how the case could be made that Paul is referring to the sin of adultery. We all say that in some sense the moral requirements of the 10 commandments are known to all men at all times. So when did God start holding men accountable for such acts? Or was it always wrong and there is something that I am missing? Something tells me that James 2:25 might have something to say about this. 
Rahab lied to save the life of the spies - and the lie was not "sin" as it was allowed for the saving of life - God commends her act several times throughout Scripture. Maybe Cain and his wife can be seen in this context - obeying God to bring life? (normative always - but situational only as authorized by God, like Richard stated) It will never be duplicated, but clearly Rahab situation would be duplicated therefore we can follow that as an example for today even though we "know" that lying is wrong, but not in the situation to save the life of another (unless asked to deny Christ - which Scripture forbids). Anyone know any good situational ethics courses out there? 
