Rich Coffeen
Puritan Board Freshman
Since Jesus engages in two types of obedience to redeem the elect, does it logically follow that there are two types of law?
In this case the ceremonial law would typify or point ahead to Christ's passive obedience, while the moral law would point ahead to Christ's active obedience.
Since the NT teaches us to imitate Christ's active obedience but not his passive obedience, in Christ the moral law is still to be obeyed while the ceremonial law is no longer to be obeyed.
Can the moral law then be divided into "audience" categories (I'm sure there is a better word than "audience"): laws for individual, church, family, and state? In other words, the requirement to train children is directed toward parents, the lex talionis is directed toward the state, etc.
In this case the ceremonial law would typify or point ahead to Christ's passive obedience, while the moral law would point ahead to Christ's active obedience.
Since the NT teaches us to imitate Christ's active obedience but not his passive obedience, in Christ the moral law is still to be obeyed while the ceremonial law is no longer to be obeyed.
Can the moral law then be divided into "audience" categories (I'm sure there is a better word than "audience"): laws for individual, church, family, and state? In other words, the requirement to train children is directed toward parents, the lex talionis is directed toward the state, etc.