How do you solve the "error" of Matthew 27:9?

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Jonathan95

Puritan Board Freshman
Matt 27:9
Then that which was spoken through Jeremiah the prophet was fulfilled: “they took the thirty pieces of silver, the price of the one whose price had been set by the sons of Israel; 10 they gave them for the Potter’s Field, as the Lord directed me.”

In this verse lies an apparent quotation of Zechariah and not Jeremiah:

Zechariah 11:13:
Then the Lord said to me, “Throw it to the potter, that magnificent price at which I was valued by them.” So I took the thirty shekels of silver and threw them to the potter in the house of the LORD.

I suppose the temptation arises to explain the error away as a copyist's mistake. I'm curious as to if it's possible that a more likely explanation exists. Thoughts?
 

KeithW

Puritan Board Freshman
Specifically look at #7 in that article.

A resource I use also points out that Matthew is quoting from both Jeremiah and Zechariah. This is explained in the article Tim gave. There are other examples like this in the New Testament where the writer quotes from more than one prophet but refers to only one of them. We do not do this in our day.

Here is a different example of where this occurs.

Mark 1:2-3 (ESV) As it is written in Isaiah the prophet, "Behold, I send my messenger before your face, who will prepare your way, the voice of one crying in the wilderness: 'Prepare the way of the Lord, make his paths straight,'"​

The first quote is not from Isaiah but from Malachi 3:1, "Behold, I send my messenger, and he will prepare the way before me." The second quote is from Isaiah 40:3 "A voice cries: “In the wilderness prepare the way of the LORD; make straight in the desert a highway for our God." You can see how these two quotes were simply put one after the other.

Some manuscripts changed "in Isaiah the prophet" to "in the prophets" seemingly to work around the supposed problem. But as long as you know the rule, and the references in your Bible are accurate for each quotation, then there is nothing to cause concern.
 

Jonathan95

Puritan Board Freshman
Specifically look at #7 in that article.

A resource I use also points out that Matthew is quoting from both Jeremiah and Zechariah. This is explained in the article Tim gave. There are other examples like this in the New Testament where the writer quotes from more than one prophet but refers to only one of them. We do not do this in our day.

Here is a different example of where this occurs.

Mark 1:2-3 (ESV) As it is written in Isaiah the prophet, "Behold, I send my messenger before your face, who will prepare your way, the voice of one crying in the wilderness: 'Prepare the way of the Lord, make his paths straight,'"​

The first quote is not from Isaiah but from Malachi 3:1, "Behold, I send my messenger, and he will prepare the way before me." The second quote is from Isaiah 40:3 "A voice cries: “In the wilderness prepare the way of the LORD; make straight in the desert a highway for our God." You can see how these two quotes were simply put one after the other.

Some manuscripts changed "in Isaiah the prophet" to "in the prophets" seemingly to work around the supposed problem. But as long as you know the rule, and the references in your Bible are accurate for each quotation, then there is nothing to cause concern.

I agree with this explanation. It shows the unity of the Holy Scriptures and how the entirety of the Bible is one cohesive story pointing to the cross of Christ. Thanks for that.
 
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