Jake
Puritan Board Senior
Polygamy is recorded quite early on in Genesis and seems to be common throughout the Old Testament and even regulated, though not blessed, in the law of Moses (e.g., Deuteronomy 21:15-17).
In the New Testament, we see Jesus reinforces the establishment of marriage as a creation ordinance (Mathew 19:4-6). We also see Paul assumes a woman being married to multiple men is adultery (Romans 7:2-3). Paul also requires office bearers in the church to be "the husband of one wife" (I Timothy 3:2,12).
All that said, it seems we see clear teaching against polygamy in the New Testament. I'm curious if polygamy was as common in this time period. Did Paul's requirement for elders and deacons make it difficult for many to make the qualifications on this account? Was Jesus' words reinforcing marriage between one man and one woman speaking against a common practice in the time he was speaking?
In the New Testament, we see Jesus reinforces the establishment of marriage as a creation ordinance (Mathew 19:4-6). We also see Paul assumes a woman being married to multiple men is adultery (Romans 7:2-3). Paul also requires office bearers in the church to be "the husband of one wife" (I Timothy 3:2,12).
All that said, it seems we see clear teaching against polygamy in the New Testament. I'm curious if polygamy was as common in this time period. Did Paul's requirement for elders and deacons make it difficult for many to make the qualifications on this account? Was Jesus' words reinforcing marriage between one man and one woman speaking against a common practice in the time he was speaking?